The question paper consists of five sections. The number of questions per section
and marks for each question are indicated in the question paper. 4. THERE IS ...
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SECTION I: ENGLISH Part A Directions for questions 1 B 10 : This section consists of two passages and a set of questions after each, based on the content of the passage. Read the passages and answer the questions by identifying the most suitable one from among the options given. Marks : Each question carries 1 mark. (Total 10 Marks) Passage 1 The villager has customarily been very conservative in his attitude and approach. He is reluctant to change his traditional way of thinking and doing things. His attitude, in many respects, is: AhomeBmade is best@. For instance, most cattleBfarmers in the villages prefer to feed their cows and buffaloes with a home mix comprising of local oil cakes like mustard or cottonseed, pulses, jaggery, salt, etc. It takes numerous visits, and is hard convincing the rural cattleBfarmer that compound feeds, scientifically formulated, improve the yields of milk, without any incremental costs. The ageBold values and attitudes towards caste, creed, women, time and money take time to change. The villager has traditionally been a believer in the philosophy of >Karma= or fate. He has found it more convenient to blame his economic destitution, poor living conditions, and straitened social status on >bhagya=, >Karma= or >fate=. The security that the villagers find in the status quo, acts as a disincentive to change and experiment in the shortBrun. Many of these antiquated attitudes, value systems and outlooks are changing due to improved levels of awareness and education. However, the rate of change is sluggish. Attitudes that have fossilised over the centuries do take time to change. 1.
What does the phrase AhomeBmade is best@ imply? (A) The best should not be discarded. (B) Whatever is being practised and known is better than what is new. (C) People should go in for the Swadeshi because it is homeBmade. (D) Change for the sake of change is no good.
2.
When will you call a person conservative in his attitude and approach? (A) When he sticks to old ways of thinking and doing. (B) When he would like to try out every new idea before accepting it. (C) When he imputes motives to change agents. (D) When he solves his problems through tried out methods.
3.
Which one of the following is not the usual reason offered by an average Indian villager for his poverty? (A) It is God=s will. (B) It is a result of some of his bad deeds committed in this or the previous birth. (C) It is because of his resistance to new ideas. (D) It is his destiny.
4.
What is the best method to convince the average Indian villager about the superiority of a new cattleBfeed? (A) Discussion (B) Field demonstration (C) Distribution of related literature (D) Home visits
5.
Why does a villager feel secure in maintaining status quo? (A) Because whatever is known should be the best. (B) Because change is seldom for the better. (C) Because too many people go about advising him. (D) Because of the imagined risk involved in trying a new approach. Passage 2
India=s role in the international stage was moulded by history rather than by the pomp and circumstance of war. As a separate entity of the British Empire, India became a founder member of the League of Nations in the same way as Australia and Canada, and thus acquired a somewhat unique international status long before independence. During the days of the League when India=s interests were affected, such as in matters of trade or the position of Indians overseas, the Indian delegation did not hesitate to make known its independent position, for what it was worth. Some Indian delegates were in demand for chairing meetings riddled with contention and controversy, because of their reputation for impartiality
and talent for mediation. These were the small beginnings of India=s later entry into the United Nations in 1945, again as a founder member before independence. The drafting of Chapter IX and X of the UN Charter, which deal with international social and economic coBoperation, was entrusted to a group that was presided over by an Indian. Government of independent India had no part in the drafting of the UN Charter, although it accepted the obligations contained therein. The UN was primarily the creation of three powers, the US, UK and USSR. The size, population, resources and potential of India lent it the weight of a medium power in the functioning of the United Nations. The fact that India was among the first nations to liberate itself from imperialist domination through nonBviolent means endowed it with a moral obligation to work in and outside the UN for the independence of nations still under colonial rule. India has served on the Security Council for 10 years or 5 terms, on the Trusteeship Council for 12 years or 4 terms, and on the Economic and Social Council for 21 years or 7 terms. 6.
Which of the following countries does not find any mention in the passage? (A) The USA (B) Britain (C) The USSR (D) India
7.
Which of the following is NOT true? (A) During the days of the League, Indian delegates there pleaded for India=s trade interests. (B) The Indian delegate espoused the cause of the Indians living overseas. (C) India entered the United Nations in 1945. (D) India acquired unique international prestige because of her immense contribution to the war effort on the side of Britain.
8.
India enjoyed great prestige at the league and Indian delegates were in demand for chairing some meetings because 1. Indian delegates were well known for their impartiality. 2. Indian delegates had talent for mediation. 3. India was considered a power to reckon with. (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 only (D) 3 only
9.
Which other common wealth countries became member of the League of Nations along with India? (A) Pakistan (B) Sri Lanka (C) Canada (D) Austria
10.
The title below that best expresses the ideas of the passage is (A) India=s Role at the United Nations. (B) India and her Neighbours. (C) India=s International Prestige. (D) The Drafting of the UN charter.
PART B Directions for questions 11 to 15: Choose the correctly spelt word for each of the following questions. (Total 5 Marks) 11.
(A) Higiene
(B) Hygiene
(C) Hygeine
(D) Higeine
12.
(A) suspicious
(B) suspicous
(C) suspisous
(D) suspiciuos
13.
(A) complaiscent
(B) complasent
(C) complacent
(D) complaicent
14.
(A) treachearous
(B) treacherous
(C) treachearos
(D) treacheros
15.
(A) Manouvre
(B) Manoeuvre
(C) Maneuvoer
(D) Maneuovre
PART C Directions for questions 16 B 25 : In the section identify the word that best completes the sentence. (Total 10 Marks) 16.
17.
_______ infinitely large number of undiscovered galaxies. (A) An (B) There are an (C) From an
(D) Since there are
______ the Dartmoor ewe and the Dumpy hen, the Tamworth pig is a rare breed of farm animal.
(A) how
(B) like
(C) the
(D) even
18.
Novelist Jane Austen ______ the first twenty-six years of her life in the village of Steventon, Hampshire. (A) living (B) was lived (C) lived (D) who lived
19.
The exquisite antique bottle was carved _______ marble. (A) from (B) by (C) about
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(D) at
A fist-sized tarantula was crawling _______ of his hand. (A) by the yard (B) between a yard (C) in yards
(D) within a yard
Kiran and Karan are as different as __________ and cheese. (A) biscuits (B) chalk (C) ham
(D) jam
The president is very old. He=s as old as the _______ (A) moon (B) grave (C) rock
(D) hills
If you _______ you work very hard. (A) work to the winds (C) work your fingers to the bone
(B) work like a new leaf (D) work until you are blue and black
Some body who is foolish or stupid is _______ (A) soft in the head (B) riding high
(C) over the moon
Anna will ______ in front of her boss to get a pay rise. (A) hue and cry (B) blow and scrap (C) leap and bound
(D) pushing up daisies
(D) line and dine
Directions for questions 26 B 30 : Choose the correct meaning for each of the idioms and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet. (Total 5 marks) 26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A la mode (A) mode of operation (C) all the modes of operation
(B) fashionable (D) out of fashion
Au contraire (A) contradictory (C) without any contradiction
(B) on the contrary (D) entering into a fight
Cul-de-sac (A) culprit
(C) dead end
(B) by itself
(D) with a purpose
Carte blanche (A) full discretionary power (C) fashionable manner
(B) free trade (D) right-minded
Voir dire (A) old game (C) witty and ironic verse
(B) flight in the end (D) preliminary examination of a juror PART D
Directions for questions 31 B 35 : Choose the correct meaning for each of the idioms/phrases and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet. (Total 5 marks) 31.
To read between the lines (A) to read slowly and haltingly (B) to understand the sense rather than the actual words (C) to understand the meaning of words and not the sense (D) to read superficially
32.
33.
34.
35.
Talking through one=s hat (A) talking nonsense (C) talking irresponsibly To sit cheek by jowl (A) very near
(B) talking ignorantly (D) talking insultingly
(B) very far
(C) tongue tied
Turn an honest penny (A) make a legitimate living (C) have dealings in white money
(B) make a good living (D) become more honest
A pipe dream (A) a bad dream (C) an impracticable plan
(B) a pleasant dream (D) a foolish idea
(D) irritated
Directions for questions 36 B 40 : Given below are FIVE different sentences where the sentences are not in order. In each case, choose the correct order in which the sentences can be rearranged to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the appropriate answer. (Total 5 marks) 36.
(i) (ii)
The skill lies in detecting such behaviour as soon as it occurs and a stop is put to it by the manager himself. Practising this skill of restraint in offering advice unnecessarily would require the manager to ask himself why there is a need in himself to give advice. (iii) In the office context, the employee may resent advice which is dished out just because the manager is his boss/senior in age and experience. (iv) Serious introspection and selfBanalysis would be essential for controlling himself from slipping into the advice giving behaviour. (v) Grownups and for that matter even children of today, do not welcome advice which is not sought by them. (A) iv, iii, ii, i, v (B) v, iii, ii, iv, i (C) iii, iv, i, ii, v (D) iii, v, i, ii, iv
37.
(i) (ii)
38.
(i)
A number of committees and conferences have gone into privatisation of power and debated the effective measures that are to be taken to avoid the power crisis. (ii) Various suggestions are floating around to tackle the alarming power scenario, both long term and short term. (iii) More than anything else, what is badly needed is that all departments and agencies talk in one voice and follow one route. (iv) Unfortunately if one regularly reads the views of experts on problems ailing power sector one sees so many divergent perceptions. (v) The sad fact that >we talk a lot but do very little= still haunts us. (A) i, ii, iii, iv, v (B) ii, iv, iii, i, v (C) iii, ii, i, v, iv (D) ii, v, iv, i, iii
39.
(i) (ii)
He cannot fight the cause of another who is injured. This principle, however is subject to rare exceptions, the prominent among them being the remedy by a writ of habeas corpus. (iii) A person who is in unlawful custody is physically incapable of approaching the court, and therefore, another person, on his behalf, can approach the court for relief. (iv) Normally, a person cannot approach a court for redress unless he has >locus standi= that is unless he is the person injured due to the act or omission of an individual, group of persons, a body corporate or the government. (v) Gradually it was realised that the principle of >locus standi= led to hardship for the poor and those who did not have the means or awareness to go to court. (A) iv, v, ii, i, iii (B) v, iv, iii, i, ii (C) iv, i, ii, iii, v (D) iii, i, iv, v, ii
40.
(i)
The Act envisages that a depository participant will be deemed an agent of the depository. The governance of depositories is carefully framed to reflect the need for objectivity in serving the diverse users in the financial community. (iii) In most developed markets, depositories are set up by stock exchanges, banks and financial institutions. (iv) The SEBI has proposed that the minimum net worth of a depository should be Rs. 100 crore. (v) The Act envisages that a depository will interface with the users through a set of depository participants. (A) iv, v, i, ii, iii (B) iv, iii, ii, i, v (C) ii, i, v, iv, iii (D) iii, ii, iv, v, i
Hence among the many important qualities that a godly person should possess or cultivate is generosity.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (A)
While a flower, the valley, mountains and other gifts of God are so attractive, an individual=s beauty can be seen in his large heartedness. Austerity and charity are the purifiers of the intelligent, says a maxim. He should help all those who may approach him for some kind of help, for this, he himself should be cheerful and ever happy. iii, iv, ii, i (B) iii, i, iv, ii (C) ii, iv, i, iii (D) ii, iii, iv, I
SECTION II ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (NUMERICAL ABILITY) Directions for questions 41 B 60: From the four answers given shade the appropriate given answer in the space provide for it. Marks: Each question carries 1 mark. (Total 20 Marks) 41.
A=s salary is 25% higher than that of B. How much percentage is B=s salary lower than that of A? (A) 20% (B) 22% (C) 24% (D) 26%
42.
Three pots have the same volume. The ratio of milk and water in first, second and third pot are respectively 3 : 2, 7 : 3 and 11 : 4. If the contents of all the three pots are mixed, then what is the ratio of milk and water in the mixture? (A) 61 : 29 (B) 63 : 31 (C) 67 : 29 (D) 69 : 31
43.
At the beginning of a term, the ratio of the number of boys in a school under 15 years to those over 15 years of age was 5 : 4. At the end of the term the ratio was 7 : 8 as 20 boys had reached the age of 15 years during the term. What is the total number of boys in the school, given that no boy left or was admitted during the term? (A) 240 (B) 225 (C) 220 (D) 230
44.
Rs. 395 was divided among A, B, C such that B gets 25% more than A and 20% more than C. What is A=s share? (A) Rs. 65 (B) Rs. 115 (C) Rs. 120 (D) Rs. 75
45.
>A= began business with Rs. 8400. After 2 months >B= joined him with a certain capital. At the end of the year, the profits were divided in the ratio of 3 : 2. How much did >B= invest? (A) Rs. 3890 (B) Rs. 5820 (C) Rs. 6720 (D) Rs. 7220
46.
Two trains are running at a speed of 50 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively in the same direction. The train running at 50 km/hr crosses a man in the other train in 18 seconds. What is the length of the faster train? (A) 100 m (B) 120 m (C) 115 m (D) 118 m
47.
In selling an article for Rs. 9 a man gets as much percent loss as is the cost price of that article. What is the lost price of the article? (A) Rs. 90 or Rs. 15 (B) Rs. 90 or Rs. 10 (C) Rs. 10 or Rs. 85 (D) Rs. 60 or Rs. 40
48.
In a competitive examination, there are four subjects. The maximum marks of all the subjects are same. The ratio of marks of a student in different subjects is 3 : 4 : 6 : 7. If he gets 60% marks in all, what is the number of subjects in which he gets more than 50% marks? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
49.
Two numbers are in the ratio of 4 : 7. The difference of their squares is 132. Find the numbers (A) 12, 21 (B) 8, 14 (C) 4, 7 (D) 16, 28
50.
The average age of 8 men increases by 2 years when two women are included in place of two men of ages 20 and 24 years. Find the average age of the women. (A) 27 years (B) 30 years (C) 28 years (D) 29 years
51.
Kirti is twice as old as Lahiri. Three years from now the sum of their ages will be 42. How old is Kirti? (A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 30 (D) 34
52.
When the radius of a cylinder is increased, its volume increased by 300% . Determine the percent increase in the radius.
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 275
(D) 400
53.
The average mark of a class of 30 students is 45 and the average mark of another class of 45 students is 30. What is the average mark of the two classes together? (A) 33 (B) 36 (C) 39 (D) 42
54.
The cost of eight apples and nine oranges is Rs.50. The cost of six apples and nine bananas is Rs.37.50. The cost of five oranges and five bananas is Rs.17.50. What is the total cost of one apple, one orange and one banana? (A) Rs.4.75 (B) Rs.7.50 (C) Rs.9.75 (D) Rs.11.50
55.
The ratio of the complementary angle and the supplementary angle of an angle is 2:7.Find the angle. (A) 27E (B) 36E (C) 54E (D) 63E
56.
A began business with Rs. 45000 and was joined afterwards by B with Rs.54000. After how many months did B join, if the profits at the end of the year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
57.
2 a − 3b + c If a:b=2:3, and b:c=2:5, then determine 2 b + a − c (A) 2:7 (B) 3:7 (C) 5:1
(D) 7:5
58.
Three movies were shown to a jury of 100 members at a film festival. 58% of the jury favoured the first movie, while 47% liked the second movie, 22% liked both the first and the second movies, 19% liked both the second and the third movies, 21% liked the third and the first movies and 7% liked all the three movies. How many members of the jury liked only the third movie? (A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 37 (D) 62
59.
If 2a+3b=12 and 3a+2b=13, then determine the value of 5a+7b. (A) 19 (B) 23 (C) 29
(D) 34
If a+b=4 and ab=3, then find a 3 + b 3 . (A) 28 (B) 36
(D) 72
60.
(C) 54
SECTION III: LOGICAL REASONING Part A Directions for questions 61 – 70: Read carefully the question and identify the most appropriate answer. (Total 30 marks) 61.
Partly because of bad weather, but also partly because some major pepper growers have switched to high–priced cocoa, world production of pepper has been running well below worldwide sales for three years. Pepper is consequently in relatively short supply, the price of pepper has soared in response: it now equals that of cocoa. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? (A) Pepper is a profitable crop only if it is grown on a large scale. (B) World consumption of pepper has been unusually high for three years. (C) World production of pepper will return to previous levels once normal weather returns. (D) Surplus stocks of pepper have been reduced in the last three years.
62.
Students who consistently receive low scores on standardised tests have also demonstrated lower than average levels of self esteem. As a result, educators believe that lowering the requirement for success on standardised tests will increase students’ level of self esteem. Which of the following, if true shows a flaw in the reasoning of the educators in the above situation? (A) A person’s level of self esteem is usually established by the time he or she begins attending school and does not change. (B) The scales for standardised tests are based on a nationwide sample test and not on any local faction. (C) Changing the grading scale for standardised tests will have no effect on the students ability to succeed in village or graduate school.
(D)
Self esteem is a very fragile part of a persons’ psychology and is highly susceptible to changes caused by the outside faction.
63.
In Delhi, Co-operative Group Housing Society (CGHS) buildings range from two stories to eight stories in height. According to the building bye-laws, if a CGHS building has more than four floors, it must have a lift. If the above statements are true, then which of the following must be true? (A) All six-storied CGHS buildings have a lift. (B) Some CGHS buildings of less than five floors do not have a lift. (C) Only the residents of fifth to eighth floors enjoy the service of a lift. (D) No two-storied building has a lift.
64.
Psychological research indicates that college hockey and football players are more quickly moved to hostility and aggression than are college athletes in noncontact sports such as swimming. But the researchers’ conclusions—that contact sports encourage and teach participants to be hostile and aggressive—is untenable. The football and hockey players were probably more hostile and aggressive to start with than the swimmers. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the psychological researchers? (A) (B) (C)
(D)
65.
The football and hockey players became more hostile and aggressive during the season and remained so during the off–season, whereas there was no increase in aggressiveness among the swimmers. The football and hockey players, but not the swimmers, were aware at the start of the experiment that they were being tested for aggressiveness. The same psychological research indicated that the football and hockey players had a great respect for cooperation and team play, whereas the swimmers were most concerned with excelling as individual competitors. The research studies were designed to include no college athletes who participated in both contact and noncontact sports.
Nobody in his senses wants airplanes dropping bombs and poison gases upon his head; nobody in his senses wants slums, Tobacco Roads, and undernourished, ragged schoolchildren in a land of potential economic plenty. But bombs are killing babies in China and Spain today, and more than one–third of the people in America are underfed, badly housed, shoddily clothed. Nobody wants men and women to be unemployed, but in Western civilisation from twenty to thirty million are, or have recently been, without work, and many of those who have recovered their jobs are making munitions of war. In brief, with a dreadful irony, we are acting to produce precisely the kinds of things and situations which we do not want. Which of the following examples reflects the argument presented? (A) (B) (C) (D)
66.
India, a thriving democracy, never encountered a famine in the past fifty years. A hungry farmer, with rich soil, and good wheat seed in his barn, could raise nothing but thistle. The truckers’ strike, on the rise in the price of diesel, ended in a whimper. The revised curriculum is expected to overcome the chronic inability among school children to understand what is taught to them.
Donors are almost never offended by being asked for too much (in fact, they are usually flattered). And if you ask for too much, your donor can always suggest a smaller amount. On the other hand, donors are frequently offended by being asked for too little. A common reaction is, “so that’s all they think I’m worth”. The above statement assumes that (A) Donors are usually never asked for enough. (B) A good fund raiser will value the worth of the donor. (C) It is worth the gamble to ask for large donations. (D) Fund raisers often think that the donors are incapable of giving much.
67.
Mr. Lester R. Brown in his thoughtful book, The Global Economic Prospect, points out that the earth's principal biological systems are four — fisheries, forests, grasslands, and croplands — and they form the foundation of the global economic system. In addition to supplying our food, these four systems provide virtually all the raw
materials for industry except minerals and petroleum–derived synthetics. In large areas of the world, human claims on these systems are reaching an unsustainable level, a point where their productivity is being impaired. When this happens, fisheries collapse, forests disappear, grasslands are converted into barren wastelands. In a protein– conscious and protein–hungry world, overfishing is common every day. In poor countries, local forests are being decimated in order to procure firewood for cooking. In some places, firewood has become so expensive that "what goes under the pot now costs more than what goes inside it". Since the tropical forest is, in the words of Dr. Myers, "the powerhouse of evolution", several species of life face extinction as a result of its destruction. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree? (a) World over, fishing should be stopped immediately. (B) For their own survival, humans should stop making any claims on the principal biological systems. (C) It is time humans realise their ethical obligation of being good stewards of the earth. (D) Humans have a minor role to play in the global economic system. 68.
It is essential that school children learn important facts about their country's history, and it may be salutary for them to learn, in time, of its follies and misdeeds, so as not to repeat them. But it is important above all, for the very young to learn something of their nation's heroes for only in this way are the virtues that make us fully human transmitted from one generation to the next. The speaker above would most likely agree with which of the following statements? (A) (B) (C) (D)
69.
Children should first be taught about the positive aspects of their country's history and only later about the negative aspects of its history. The school system should not provide information to students about historical incidents that might be considered to have been mistakes. The development of moral virtue and civic character is a task for the classroom rather than for the parents in the home. Writers of histories for children should strive for a well–balanced and objective presentation of historical facts.
Foods that are high in fat, salt or sugar content have been shown to be deleterious to health. If the government can forbid the sale to minors of other harmful products such as cigarettes and alcoholic beverages, why not treat dangerous foods in the same way? Children under 18 should be allowed to purchase only foods that are nutritious and healthful. The author of the statement above makes his point primarily by (A) Analysing a cause and effect relationship (C) Appealing to the emotions of the audience.
70.
(B) Drawing an analogy. (D) Offering a counter example.
The owners of a local supermarket have decided to make use of three now–redundant check–out counters. They believe that they will attract those customers who have lately been put off by the long check–out lines during the mid–morning and evening rush hours. The owners have concluded that in order to be successful, the increased revenue from existing and added counters will have to be more than the increase in maintenance costs for the added counters. The underlying goal of the owners can be summarised thus: (A) To improve services to all customers. (B) To attract people who have never been to the store. (C) To make use of the redundant counters. (D) To increase monthly profits.
Directions for questions 71 – 75 : Each question below consists of one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Code: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is false but R is true.
(D) A is true but R is false. 71.
Assertion (A): The President of India is not a part of Parliament. Reason (R): A bill passed by the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without President’s assent.
72.
Assertion (A): During the British rule, the Congress Ministers resigned in 1939 in all the provinces where they were in office. Reason (R): Congress wanted fresh elections as it was frustrated with Jinnah’s campaign of two–nation theory.
73.
Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative Council. Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.
74.
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire. Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.
75.
Assertion A: It is necessary to eliminate waste of irrigation water. Reason R: Availability of irrigation facilities reduces farmers’ dependence on monsoon rains, which are erratic and irregular.
Directions for questions 76 – 80: In each question below are given one statement and two assumptions I and II. Examine the statement and shade the correct assumption which is implicit in the statement on the OMR Answer Sheet using the following code. Code: (A) if only Assumption I is implicit (B) if only Assumption II is implicit (C) if either I or II is implicit (D) if neither I nor II is implicit 76.
Statement: “Sensex has crashed from 20,000 to 7,000 in a month. The brokers panicked on rumours. Perhaps a statement by finance minister on pullout of FII’s funds affected the market sentiment. Assumptions :
77.
Statements :
Assumption :
I. II.
The cause of the collapse is not definitely known. The rumours of FII fund pull out were baseless.
The involvement of an Indian scientist in misinterpretation of global warming facts is really shocking. It is regrettable that he put money before national interest. I. II.
Global warming case involves the active hand of an Indian scientist in supplying secret documents to other countries. National interest should be kept before monetary interests.
78.
Statements : Assumption :
“I don’t think I am sounding arrogant after the film “three Idiots” success” — says Amir Khan. I. “Three idiots” film is a successful film. II. Some stars do change their attitude after a successful film.
79.
Statements :
“If violence in movies has become popular, the audience is responsible for it. Why should they watch such movies” — an editorial.
Assumption :
I.
Violence in movies was not popular earlier.
II. 80.
Statement :
Assumptions :
Audience watching movie is an indication of its popularity.
“I don’t understand why Indian culture discourages women from drinking wine. Wine is good for blood circulation” — Ana tells Charlie. I. II.
Drinking wine has only positive effects on body. Wine is the only medicine to improve blood circulation.
Directions for questions 81 – 85: Each question below contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Shade the correct option on relationship on the OMR Answer Sheet. 81.
Daya has a brother Anil. Daya is the son of Chandra. Bimal is Chandra’s father. In terms of relationship what is Anil to Bimal? (A) Son (B) Grandson (C) Brother (D) Grandfather
82.
A woman walking with a boy meets another woman and on being asked about her relationship with the boy, she says, “My maternal uncle and his maternal uncle’s maternal uncle are brothers”. How is the boy related to the woman? (A) Nephew (B) Brother-in-law (C) Son (D) Grandson
83.
P is the son of Q while Q and R are the sisters of one another. T is the mother of R. If S is the son of T, which of the following statement is correct? (A) T is the brother of Q (B) S is cousin of P (C) Q and S are sisters (D) S is the maternal uncle of P
84.
X – Z means X is the mother of Z; X × Z means X is the father of Z and X + Z means X is the daughter of Z. Now, if M – N × T + Q, then which of the following is not true? (A) T is N’s daughter (B) N is the wife of Q (C) M is the mother-in-law of Q (D) Q is the wife of N
85.
A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C? (A) Father (B) Brother (C) Grandfather (D) Uncle
Directions for questions 86 – 90 : In each question below two words are paired which have certain relationship. After the double colon (::), another word is given. Shade the correct option on the OMR Answer Sheet which pairs with this word taking into account the pair already given. 86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
Food : Hunger : : ? (A) Clothes : Exposure (B) Question : Answer (C) Door : Knob
(D) Student : School
Numismatist : Coin : : Psychologist : ? (A) Circus (B) Prayer
(C) Psyche
(D) Harvest
Exemplary : Emulate (A) Overbearing : Follow (C) Forbidden : Abstain
(B) Abominable : Hate (D) Hidden : Find
Praise : Laudatory (A) Speech : Boring
(C) Debate : Caustic
(B) Tirade : Abusive
Anthology : Poems (A) Biography : Anecdotes (C) Constellation : Stars
(D) Sermon : Pedantic
(B) Plays : Compendium (D) Encyclopaedia : Words PART B
Directions for questions 91 – 95 : In each question below are given one statement and two Courses of Action I and II. Assuming the statement to be true, decide which of the two suggested Course of Action logically follows and shade on the OMR Answer Sheet, using the code given below. (A) if only I follows
(B) if only II follows (C) if either I or II follow (D) if neither I nor II follow 91.
Statement :
The police has failed to protect the couples who got married against the wishes of their parents. Last month 5 couples were killed in five different states.
Course of Action : I. II. 92.
Statement :
Swine flu is on the rise in India.
Course of Action : I. II. 93.
Statement :
II. Statement :
The Government should amend the constitution to incorporate the right to education in the list of fundamental rights. The schools should be directed to offer education free to any student approaching them.
It is suspected that one of the main reasons behind 26/11 attack on Mumbai could be the complicity of top police officials.
Course of Action : I. II.
95.
Government must increase medical facilities as soon as possible. Government should take steps to clean all cities of India.
The supreme court has decided that the right to education is a fundamental right.
Course of Action : I.
94.
Children should be counseled from childhood that going against the wishes of parents will result in dangerous consequences. The police should be asked to take special care of couples of inter caste marriage.
The Government should suspend all Government officials till the truth is finally out. The Government should immediately setup an enquiry commission to look in to the attacks.
Statement : Very serious blunders in accounts were detected in the books of Satyam. Course of Action : I. Existing auditors of Satyam should be replaced with new auditors to point out all the major accountancy errors. II. A legal notice should be issued to all the employees in management who are responsible for accounts maintenance. PART C
Directions for questions 96 – 100 : Each question below contains a statement and two arguments I and II. Assume the statement to be true, shade the argument which is strong on the OMR Answer Sheet using the code below. Code: (A) if only Argument I is strong (B) if only Argument II is strong (C) if either Argument I or II is strong (D) if neither Argument I nor II strong 96.
97.
98.
Statement :
Should frequent strikes by doctors be banned?
Argument :
I. II.
Statement :
The telecast of news channels must be controlled by Government.
Argument :
I. II.
Yes, going on strike every time effects large number of patients. No. Doctors should not be deprived of the platform to show their grievance.
Yes, variety of news only confuses people. No, Government intervention in news will subdue the truth.
Should reservation for women be extended to all jobs? Argument :
I. II.
No, women should be entrusted with household jobs. Yes, they should also get in to all job areas.
99.
100.
Statement :
Should October 2nd be declared as a working day.
Argument :
I. II.
Statement :
Should students take part in politics?
Argument :
I. II.
No, people would like to pay their homage to Gandhiji on October 2nd. Yes, Gandhiji has always preached that work is worship.
Yes, participation in politics will inculcate the qualities of leadership. No, they should study and build their career.
PART D Directions for questions 101 – 105: Answer the following questions and shade the appropriate answer in the OMR Answer Sheet. 101. In an attempt to predict the future course of consumer spending, Investment Monthly magazine surveyed its readers. Of those surveyed over 60 per cent reported that they planned to buy a new automobile or at least one major appliance within the next three months. From these results the magazine concluded that consumer spending for the next quarter was likely to be high. Which of the following if true would most weaken the conclusion above? (A) (B) (C) (D)
The cost of a new automobile is much greater than that of a major appliance. A person who plans to make a major purchase at some time in the future may not yet have settled on a brand. The readers of Investment Monthly are more affluent than the average consumer. Some of the items to be purchased will be imports and will not stimulate markets in the United States.
102. Jet fighters have recently been equipped with electronic improvements enabling the pilot to shoot down an enemy plane still out of sight. There is, however, the following problem: there is no sure way to determine whether a plane out of sight is a friend or a foe. Which of the following products suffers from a drawback that, in its logical features, is most like the problem described above? (A) (B) (C) (D)
A fire alarm system with such a high heat and smoke threshold that is likely to react too late to a developing fire. An improved electronic ignition system whose superiority is limited to those rare times when it is perfectly adjusted. A product marked as weed killer that kills all plants to which it is applied before they resume their active growth in spring. A jar lid designed to be childproof that children have difficulty in removing.
103. By the time it is completed, a statue now slated for construction in Bodh Gaya will be the tallest edifice in the country—and the tallest figure of Buddha on the planet. Artists and engineers in India and Britain are planning the Maitreya project, a meditation park funded by Buddhist donors from all over the world. The centre piece of the 40 acre park will be the 500–foot bronze clad figure, so large that the Statue of Liberty would just reach its arm. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? (A) The Maitreya project will take five years to complete (B) The statue of Liberty is one of the tallest structures in the world (C) A statue taller than the 500–foot Buddha will not be built anywhere in the world in the next five years time (D) Bodh Gaya is a holy place
104. A school admits only mentally retarded children. Only the students of this school are invited to attend a party hosted by the mayor. I.Q. of mentally retarded persons is less than 60. What conclusion can be drawn from the above? (A) All those who attended the party had an I.Q. less than 60. (B) All the students who attended the party had an I.Q. less than 60. (C) Some gentlemen were also invited to the party. (D) None of these. 105. In a farm there are great many squirrels that eat grass. There are also many kites that eat the squirrels. Last year a disease broke out among squirrels and most of them died. Which one of the following things then most probably would have occurred? (A) The grass died and squirrel population decreased (B) The grass died as kite population increased. (C) The grass grew taller and the squirrel population decreased. (D) The grass grew taller and the kite population increased.
SECTION IV : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Directions for questions 106 – 155 : From the four answers, identify the most appropriate answer (Total 50 Marks) 106. Every object remains in the state of rest or in its state of uniform motion unless (A) its velocity changes. (B) its acceleration varies. (C) internal force changes. (D) external forces change. 107. Red Blood Corpuscles are formed in the (A) liver (B) heart
(C) spleen
(D) bone marrow
108. The Chukchi Sea, which has floating polar research station is located in: (A) Western Pacific Ocean (B) North Atlantic Ocean (C) Southern Pacific Ocean (D) Arctic Ocean 109. What does the Canada India Research U. S refer to ? (A) A Business forum (B) A nuclear Reactor (C) A scientific research group (D) A proposed space research organization 110. Which is India's largest indigenous Research and Production nuclear reactor? (A) Apsara (B) Dhruva (C) Kamini (D) Kalkar 111. Which among the following is headed by Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta? (A) Arms Forces Tribunal (B) National Green Tribunal (C) Debt Recovery Tribunal (D) Central Administrative Tribunal 112. Which of the following commissions is set up to give India “the knowledge edge in the world” and help it to “consolidate its position as knowledge power”? (A) Disinvestment Commission (B) Commission for SC/ST and OBC (C) Kelkar Commission on Reforms in Banking Sector (D) None of these 113. The Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) has been established under which among the following departments of Government of India? (A) Department of Consumer Affairs (B) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (C) Department of Telecommunication (D) Department of Economic Affairs 114. A closed economy is one which (A) does not trade with other countries. (B) does not possess any means of international transport. (C) does not have a coastal line.
(D) is not a member of the UN. 115.
_____ of Constitution of India entrusts the President of India to grant pardons? (A) Article 71 (B) Article 72 (C) Article 73 (D) Article 74
116. Anant Pai, better known as 'Uncle Pai' , was the creator of ___ comic series? (A) Chacha Chaudhary (B) Amar Chitra Katha (C) Chandamama (D) Indrajaal 117. Panchayati Raj was recommended by (A) Sarkaria Commission (C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(B) Fazal Ali Commission (D) Rajamannar Committee
118. In the UNFCCC convention at which among the following places, the decision to set up a "Green Climate Fund" was taken in the later half of 2010? (A) Copenhagen (B) Cancun (C) Poznan (D) Bali 119. “Wagha” lies in the land border between (A) India and Pakistan (C) India and Bangladesh
(B) India and Nepal (D) Nepal and China
120. On which of the following achievements does the UNDP Human Development Report base its rating of Human Development Index (HDI) in respect of different countries? I. Life expectancy II. Educational attainment III. Adjusted real income Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I, II and III 121. Chernobyl (in Ukraine) disaster occurred on (A) 26th April 1986 (B) 26th April 1983
(C) 23rd April 1988
(D) 23rd April 1981
122. World's first Global Center for Nuclear Energy Partnership was started in (A) Rajasthan (B) Kerala (C) Haryana (D) Uttar Pradesh 123. Who was the town–planner of Chandigarh? (A) Edward Lutyens (B) Charles Correa
(C) Le Corbusier
(D) Christopher Wren
124. India's first National Centre for Marine Bio-diversity (NCMB)is located at (A) Bhavnagar (B) Jamnagar (C) Mumbai (D) Pondicherry 125. According to the UN convention on the rights of the child which of the following is not a right? (A) Safe drinking water (B) Adequate standard of living (C) Education (D) Employment 126. Which among the following is India’s first indigenously developed missile? (A) Akash (B) Prithvi (C) Agni (D) Trisul 127. The Isher Judge Ahluwalia committee, is related to (A) Rural Development (B) Urban Infrastructure (C) Corporate Affairs (D) Parliamentary affairs 128. From which of the following dates, the Model Code of Conduct becomes operational in an election for a state assembly in India? (A) 6 Months prior to the date on which election commences (B) 3 months prior to the date on which election commences (C) 2 month before the state assembly is due to finish its term (D) The date on which election commission announces the election schedule 129. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(A) The United Kingdom. (C) The United States.
(B) Australia. (D) Canada.
130. The Chairman of the Joint Parliamentary Committee on the 2G spectrum issue is ? (A) M M Joshi (B) Kodikunnil Suresh (C) P. C. Chacko (D) P K Bansal 131. Polavaram irrigation and hydel project, is among which of the following states? (A) Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Karnataka (B) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (C) Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Chhattisgarh (D) Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh 132. Devaluation of a currency means (A) Reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies. (B) Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market. (C) Fixing the value of the currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank and major partners. (D) None. 133. Voting behaviour means (A) Voters do not behave properly at the time of elections (B) Study of the factors that enhance the choice of voters (C) Study of those voters who do not vote for the ruling party (D) Study of the phenomena of band wagon effect 134. As per the Union Budget 2011-12, an international award with a prize money of Rs. 1 crore is being instituted for promoting values of universal brotherhood in the memory of (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Rabindranath Tagore (C) Swami Vivekananda (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru 135. Which is the agency responsible for enforcement of Foreign Exchange Management Act(FEMA) 1999 and Prevention of money Laundering Act 2002 in India? (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Department of Revenue (C) Enforcement Directorate (D) Income Tax Department 136. Which of the following organizations is implementing the "Memory of the World Programme"? (A) World Economic Forum (B) UNESCO (C) UNICEF (D) World Trade Organization 137. "Hunar se Rozgar" is a scheme of (A) Ministry of Rural Development (B) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (C) Ministry of Tourism (D) Ministry of Urban Development 138. "Woodwinds of Change" is the autobiography of which among the following famous personalities? (A) Sunderlal Bahuguna (B) Hari Prasad Chaurasia (C) Mahasweta Devi (D) Kishan Maharaj 139. "Nagoya Protocol " is related to (A) International Finance (C) Pharmaceutical Industry
(B) Biodiversity (D) Global Warming
140. The two-week long joint counter-insurgency exercise named "Nomadic Elephant" was conducted in Belgaum in December 2010 between India and (A) Malaysia (B) Sri Lanka (C) Mongolia (D) Myanmar 141. Sarkaria Commission was associated with (A) Bofors Scandal (C) Linking of Rivers
(B) Centre State Relations (D) Gujarat Riots
142. Which of the following is not true regarding India’s nuclear policy? (A) A posture of “no–first use”
(B) (C) (D)
Retaliatory attacks can only be authorised by the civilian political leadership Non–use of nuclear weapons against non–nuclear weapon states, even if attacked by biological and chemical weapons by such states All the above are true
143. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of security deposit for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is (A) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 5,000 (B) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 2,500 (C) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,500 (D) None of these 144. The Jasmine Revolution is related to (A) Egypt (B) Myanmar
(C) Poland
(D) Tunisia
145. Which among the following is the 2010 Word of the Year by American Dialect Society? (A) Tweet (B) Spillion (C) App (D) Google 146. Hashim Thaci, who is facing charges of Human Organ Trafficking is prime minister of (A) Serbia (B) Kosovo (C) Bulgaria (D) Bosnia and Herzegovina 147. "National Voters' Day" is (A) 24 January (B) 25 January
(C) 27 January
(D) 28 January
148. Oana Lungescu is the first women spokesperson of (A) European Commission (B) NATO (C) United Nations Development Programme (D) World Bank 149. The state Government of Haryana has decided to open a medical college in the memory of late astronaut Kalpana Chawla at (A) Hissar (B) Karnal (C) Faridabad (D) Gurgaon 150. Which among the following games has been included for the first time in the Asian Games 2010? (A) Cricket (B) Baseball (C) Volleyball (D) Football 151. GFAJ-1 is (A) A Bacteria
(B) A Virus
(C) An Algae
(D) A Fungus
152. Which of the following countries in Europe has decided to introduce a law to ban the practice of wearing burqa in public places ? (A) England (B) Germany (C) France (D) Italy 153. Which of the following states in India has initiated the "Micro Legal Literacy" Scheme for legal help and effective result? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) West Bengal (C) Haryana (D) Orissa 154. Which among the following is also known as the "world's most translated document"? (A) Kyoto protocol (B) Universal Declaration of Human Rights (C) United Nations Millennium Declaration (D) Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples 155. Who among the following Indian Economists have played a crucial role in the MNREGA formerly NREGA? (A) Amartya Sen (B) Jean Dreze (C) Jagdish Natwarlal Bhagwati (D) Dr. Vijay Kelkar
SECTION V: LEGAL REASONING Directions for questions 156 – 200 : In each question, there is a principle followed by certain facts and four probable answers. Identify the most probable answer that can be reached when the principle is applied to the facts.
(Total 45 marks) 156. Principle: Every person has a right to carry on his trade or profession in competition with others and if as a result of a healthy business competition, his rival suffers a loss, then, he is not entitled to recover any compensation. Facts: Mr. Gangadhar started a school and collected a reduced fee from students. As a result the students in Mr. Srinivas’s school transferred to Mr. Gangadhar’s school. Due to competition, Mr. Srinivas’s school had to reduce the fees from Rs.400 to Rs.120 per quarter. Consequently, Mr. Srinivas suffered loss and sued Mr. Gangadhar for compensation. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Mr. Gangadhar is liable to compensate Mr. Srinivas, as the trade practices of Mr. Gangadhar were unfair. Mr. Gangadhar is liable to compensate Mr. Srinivas, as the trade practices of Mr. Gangadhar were restrictive. Mr. Gangadhar is not liable to compensate Mr. Srinivas, as the business loss suffered by Mr. Srinivas was the outcome of healthy competition. Mr. Gangadhar is not liable to compensate Mr. Srinivas, as Mr. Srinivas must have made enough profits before Mr. Gangadhar opened his school.
157. Principles: Culpable homicide: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide. Culpable homicide is murder, i) If the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death, or ii) If it is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the person to whom the harm is caused, or iii) If it is done with the intention of causing bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death, or iv) If the person committing the act knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and commits such act without any excuse for incurring the risk of causing death or such injury as aforesaid. Facts: ‘A’ knows that ‘B’ is suffering from a disease in his head and also knows that if a fist blow is given to ‘B’ on his head, it is likely to cause his death. Knowing it ‘A’ gives a ‘fist blow to B on his head and caused death of ‘B’. ‘A’ is (A) (B) (C) (D)
guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder since he does not think that his act is likely to cause death. guilty of murder since he had knowledge that in all probability it is likely to cause death of ‘B’. guilty of no offence since the blow is not sufficient to cause the death of a person of normal health. guilty of causing hurt only.
158. Principle: When a servant while in the course of the performance of his duties as such, commits a negligent act, the master would be liable for the same. Facts: Smith was using Emmet’s garage for parking his car. One day when Emmet’s servant Davey was transferring some petrol from a drum to another car, he struck a match to light his cigarette and threw the lighted match stick on the floor which caused fire in the garage and Smith’s car was gutted. Smith sued Emmet for damages for the negligence of his servant. (A) (B) (C) (D) 159.
Emmet is not liable; if there is any liability, it is of Davey. Since Davey was not acting in the course of employment, Emmet is not liable for Davey’s wrongful act. Emmet is liable for the negligence of his servant Davey. Emmet has the defence of inevitable accident.
Principle: Whoever by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly, induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and
which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property is said to commit offence of cheating. Facts: Abhayanand Mishra, applied for the admission into M.A. course, enclosing his B.A. certificate and also a service certificate showing that he was working as a teacher. Before admission was confirmed, the university authorities enquired into the matter and found that his degree certificate and service certificate were fake. On the application of the university, the police instituted cases against him. (A) Abhayanand has committed the offence of cheating. (B) The university authorities committed the offence of malicious prosecution. (C) Abhayanand has committed the offence of criminal breach of trust. (D) Abhayanand has not committed any offence. 160. Principle: Freedom of Speech and Expression is guaranteed under Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution as a Fundamental Right. But this right is not absolute and the Constitution empowers the state to impose certain reasonable restrictions. Facts: Khaja Ahmed Abbas produced a documentary AA tale of four cities@, in which he screened certain areas of Red Light Areas (Debauching Centres) in Bombay. The Film Censor Board granted ABcertificate rejecting the claim of the producer to grant UBcertificate. Abbas challenged the act of Film Censor Board.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
161.
Pre-censorship was justified and the state was empowered to impose ‘reasonable restrictions’ on freedom of speech and expression. Pre-censorship was not justified as it was against the spirit of Article 19(1) (a). Article (1) (a) is a fundamental right granted to citizens and is an absolute right and unquestionable. Any restrictions imposed on Article 19(1) (a) would lead to destruction of democracy and freedom of speech and expression.
Principle: Mistake is one of the defences available to the accused to get exemption from criminal liability. Facts: ‘A’, an officer of a court of justice, is ordered by that court to arrest ‘Y’, and without conducting due enquiry, believing ‘Z’ to be ‘Y’, arrests ‘Z’. Is ‘A’ liable? (A) A is protected under defence of mistake. (B) A is not protected under defence of mistake as he did not conduct enquiry. (C) None of these.
162. Principle: Nothing is an offence, which is done by accident or misfortune. Facts: ‘A’, a tribal went into the forest to hunt the animals. He shot an arrow with a bonafide intention shooting down an animal. But the arrow caused the death of ‘B’. Has ‘A’ committed any offence?
163.
(A)
There is mental intent on ‘A’‘s part to kill something, and hence, he cannot claim defence of accident.
(B) (C) (D)
‘A’ can claim the defence of mistake. ‘A’ can claim defence of accident. None of these.
Principles: Theft: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft. Extortion: Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security, commits "extortion". Cheating: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or
property, is said to "cheat". Facts: ‘A’ takes a camera belonging to ‘B’ out of the possession of ‘B’ without the consent of ‘B’, with the intention of keeping it until he gets a reward from ‘B’ for its restoration. ‘A’ is guilty of (A) criminal misappropriation (B) extortion (C) theft (C) cheating 164. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it is by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against his will. Facts: ‘A’, a retired Jamedar, attended a marriage party, in which he drank liquor heavily. He wanted to sit in a chair, in which a boy ‘B’ already sat. ‘A’ asked ‘B’ to stand so that he would sit in it. ‘B’ refused to do so. ‘A’ got annoyed and shot the boy with his pistol. ‘B’ died on the spot. State the liability of ‘A’. (A) ‘A’ would be acquitted under defence of intoxication. (B) ‘A’ would be acquitted under the defence of accident. (C) ‘A’ would be punished as he voluntarily drank liquor heavily. (D) ‘A’ would be sent to psychotherapy to quit the bad habit of drunkenness. 165.
Principles: Culpable homicide is murder, i) if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death, or ii) If it is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the person to whom the harm is caused, or iii) If it is done with the intention of causing bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death, or iv) If the person committing the act knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and commits such act without any excuse for incurring the risk of causing death or such injury as aforesaid. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Facts: Y, a small boy was guarding the field. Z and M, outsiders, trespassed and stared harvesting. On protest by Y they beat him up and hearing his cries, X and P, Uncles of Y who were working in different directions, rushed in. One of them X, fired at the trespassers killing one of them and ran away. P was arrested and charged. Which of the following statements is correct? (A) he is liable for murder because of the similar intention of both the brothers. (B) he is liable for murder because of the same intention of both the brothers. (C) he is liable for murder because he was present when his brother fired at the trespassers. (D) he is not liable because there was no common intention to kill.
166 – 169 False Imprisonment: When a person is deprived of his personal liberty, whether by being confined within the four walls or by being prevented from leaving the place where he is, it is false imprisonment. Battery: The wrong of battery consists in intentional application of force to another person without any lawful justification. Its essential requirements are: a. There should be use of force. b. The same should be, without any lawful justification. 166. Anand closes and locks a door at work, leaving Bhushan locked in a storage room. What is Anand's liability to Bhushan if Anand knows Bhushan is inside and Bhushan knows he's locked in? (A) False Imprisonment (B) Battery (C) No liability 167. Anand closes and locks a door at work, leaving Bhushan locked in a storage room. What is Anand's liability to Bhushan if Anand knows Bhushan is inside but Bhushan does not know he's locked in? (A) False Imprisonment (B) Battery (C) No liability
168. Anand closes and locks a door at work, leaving Bhushan locked in a storage room. What is Anand's liability to Bhushan if Anand does not know Bhushan is inside but Bhushan knows he's locked in? (A) False Imprisonment (B) Battery (C) No liability 169. Anand closes and locks a door at work, leaving Bhushan locked in a storage room. What is Anand's liability to Bhushan if Anand knows Bhushan is inside, Bhushan knows he's locked in and in fact the storage room has another unlocked door about which neither Anand nor Bhushan is aware? (A) False Imprisonment (B) Battery (C) No liability Directions for questions 170 – 176 : Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer among the four alternatives given. 170.
Legal Principle: Where a person acts to his own detriment in reliance on the promise of another, the other is liable for damages arising from such actions. Factual Situation: Divya has a tendency to get fined for over–speeding frequently. So Dhruva tells her that he will give her Rs.10,000 if she does not get fined for over–speeding for 1 year. Divya drives very carefully and goes a complete year without getting fined for over–speeding. Is Dhruva obligated to pay? (A) Yes, because Divya acted in forbearance of her legal rights based on the agreement. (B) No, because Rs.10,000 is not an adequate amount based on Divya's detriment. (C) Yes, because a promise is a promise and consideration has nothing to do with this agreement. (D) No, because Divya suffered no legal detriment.
171. Legal Principles: Implied Contract: A contract where the agreement of the parties is indicated by their conduct. Quasi contract: An obligation that is imposed by the courts to avoid injustice or unjust enrichment. Factual Situation: Ghosh Babu is driving home from work late in the night. Unfortunately, he is not paying attention to his driving and hits the concrete road divider and falls down. He is taken unconscious to the hospital. He is treated in the emergency room, and admitted to the hospital for observation. When he wakes up and is handed a bill, he refuses to pay. He says that he never agreed to pay and that nothing can be inferred from his conduct, therefore, there is no implied contract. He is: (A) correct, but he must pay under quasi–contract. (B) correct, he can void the contract when he wakes up. (C) incorrect, this is an example of an implied contract. (D) correct, and therefore has no contractual obligation to pay. 172. Legal Principle: Assault is an intentional act by one person that creates an apprehension in another of an imminent harmful or offensive contact. Which of the following constitutes assault? (A) If you don't give me that book right now, I'll break your arm. (B) If I see you in here again, I'll punch you in the nose. (C) Rohan is angry with Sohan and swings a bat behind Sohan's back. He does not actually hit Sohan. Sohan feels a cool breeze as the bat swings behind him and says: "My, is it getting cool in here!" (D) None of these constitutes an assault. 173. Legal Principle: Who ever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description of a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both. Factual Situation: Two buses of APSRTC were trying to overtake each other near a ring road where a turn has to be negotiated. One of the two buses collided with a lorry, overturned and plunged into a river resulting in the death of a few occupants of the bus and injuring others. Is the driver guilty of offence of causing death by negligence? (A) No (C) Overtaking is competitive 174.
(B) Yes (D) None of these
Legal Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of Right of Private defence
Factual Situation: Rahul and Chakraborthy are the students staying in the boys hostel. Tanuja is a girl staying in the girls hostel. Both Rahul and Chakraborthy fell in love with Tanuja. They both quarrelled and then started fighting over Tanuja. One afternoon Rahul accompanied by his friends and armed with sticks and iron–rods reached Chakraborthy’s room, and abused him. On seeing many boys in an offensive mood, Chakraborthy had thrown boiling tea on Rahul's face, due to which his face was disfigured. (A) Chakraborthy has committed an offence and can be punished (B) Chakraborthy has not committed any offence but has defended himself (C) Both Rahul and Chakraborthy are guilty and can be punished (D) Rahul alone is guilty because he started the fight 175. Legal Principles: Culpable homicide: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide. Culpable homicide is murder, (i) if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death, or (ii) if it is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the person to whom the harm is caused, or (iii) if it is done with the intention of causing bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death, or (iv) if the person committing the act knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and commits such act without any excuse for incurring the risk of causing death or such injury as aforesaid. Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligible act not amounting to culpable homicide, shall be imprisoned for a term which may extend to two years or imposed with a fine; or both. Factual Situation: L was driving his old car whose brakes wouldn’t function at high speed. He was driving at 80 km per hour near a school where the speed limit was only 30 km/h. A child tried to cross the street and the driver could not stop the car as the brakes did not work. The child was run over and killed. What offence has L committed? (A) Offence of murder (B) Offence of culpable homicide (C) Offence not amounting to culpable homicide (D) None of these 176. Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care in order not to injure by an act or omission his neighbour, which he may foresee. The neighbour for this purpose is a person who is likely to be affected by the act or the omission. Facts: Mohan, while rushing to board a bus stationed on the opposite side of the road, pushed Kiran who was carrying fire crackers. The crackers exploded injuring a salesman, Laxman. Laxman filed a suit against Mohan claiming damages. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Mohan is not liable, because Kiran should not be carrying load of crackers on a roads with out taking any precautionary measures. Mohan is not liable, because he did not foresee Kiran carrying fire crackers. Mohan is liable, because he pushed Kiran. Mohan is liable, because he was running.
Directions Q(177 – 200): Find the best answer for the following questions. 177. Juvenile delinquents are sent to (A) Borstal (B) Asylum
(C) Protective custody (D) Reformation centre
178. A person who makes an affidavit or deposition is called (A) Deodand (B) Dennesme (C) Denizen
(D) Deponent
179. Mercy killing is also known as (A) Euthanasia (B) Final exit
(D) Merciful death
(C) Murphy’s death
180. An order of any court that directs a person to do something or refrain from doing a particular thing is termed as (A) Inhibition (B) Injunction (C) Infortunium (D) Infans 181. A previous judgment cited by court to decide on a similar set of facts is (A) precedent (B) case (C) obiter dicta
(D) judicial dicta
182. If a person is prosecuted for a criminal offence, the burden proof is on (A) Court (B) Prosecution (C) Police
(D) Accused
183. Which of the following is not essential in the formation of contract. (A) Written agreement (B) Consideration (C) Offer and Acceptance (D) Free consent 184. In which of the following cases, the supreme court held that non-payment of minimum wages is a type of forced labour. (A) Indra Swahney Case (B) Maneka Gandhi Case (C) Asiad Workers Case (D) LPI Trade Union Case 185. The command by court asking a public authority to perform its duty is called the writ of (A) mandamus (B) quo warrants (C) prohibition (D) certiorari 186. A person who helps or aids another in committing an offence is guilty of (A) Abetment (B) Conspiracy (C) Incitement
(D) Collusion
187. What is the offence for which a police officer can arrest a person without a warrant? (A) Cognizable offence (B) Non-cognizable offence (C) Bailable offence (D) Non-bailable offence 188. In the court of law, a man is pressured to be dead if he/she is not heard of as alive for (A) 5 years (B) 7 years (C) 9 years (D) 10 years 189. By which of the following Amendment Acts of 1985 ‘Anti’ defection law was added to the constitution. (A) 51st (B) 52nd (C) 53rd (D) 54th 190. The present Panchayati Raj Institution is based on the report of (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Local Enquiry Committee (C) To nation enquiry Committee (D) Jawaharlal Nehru Report 191. When was National Commission for women set up? (A) 1990 (B) 1992 (C) 1994
(D) 1996
192. Which amendment has added the ninth schedule to Indian Constitution? (A) 1st Amendment (B) 8th Amendment (C) 9th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
193. The emergency automatically suspends. (A) Fundamental rights under Article 19 (C) The powers of the courts
(B) The powers of the governors (D) State Government
194. The crime of arousing hatred or contempt against the Government of India is (A) Sedition (B) Treason (C) Slander (D) Rumour 195. The dishonour of cheque results in criminal consequences according to section 138 of_________ (A) Negotiable Instruments Act (B) Monetary Instruments act (C) Contracts Act (D) Specific Relief Act
196. Criminal proceedings cannot be instituted or continued against which of the following personnel during the term of his/her office? (A) President and Governor (B) President and Governor and Vice President (C) President and Vice President and Prime Minister (D) President, Prime Minister and Governor 197. The ultimate objective of criminal law is (A) To protect public and private property (B) To punish the forbidden conduct (C) To protect public property (D) To protect public by maintenance of law and order 198. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India? (A) birth (B) descent (C) acquiring property (D) naturalization 199. “Law is not an intellectual legerdemain ___ made to make black appear white and white appear black , but it is ceaseless endeavour to enthrone justice” - who said these words? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) MK Gandhi (C) Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes (D) Lord Atkins 200. Consumer protection Act, provides for a _____ tier quasi judicial mechanism for dealing with complaints. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Explanatory Answers: CLATMTN2.1 Section I : English — Part A 1–10 1. B The villager does not want to change his attitude because, to him, whatever he is used to is the best and he does not want anything new. This idea is implied in option b. 2. A Refer to para 1 : “The villager has customarily ... and doing things”. This means that a person who is unwilling to change his ideas and way of actions, and sticks to the traditional or old ways is a conservative. 3. C Refer to para 2 : “He has found it more .... ‘bhagya’, ‘Karma’, or ‘fate’”. ‘Bhagya’ means God’s will, ‘Karma’ is the person’s actions in one life, believed to decide the fate in the next; and ‘fate’ means destiny. Only option C is not discussed. 4. D Refer to para 1 : “It takes numerous visits ...... without any incremental costs”. 5. A The villager’s attitude is “home–made is best” and they are reluctant to change this idea. To them whatever is known and practised is better than any new one. 6. B Though there is a mention of the UK, there is no specific mention of Britain, which is a part of the UK. 7. D This is not the reason for India acquiring international prestige. India always worked through non violent means and never contributed to war efforts, especially on the side of Britain. 8. B Refer to para 1 : “Some Indian delegates were .... talent for mediation”. 9. C Refer to para 1 : “As a separate entity...... long before independence”. 10. C The title of the passage can be “India’s International Prestige” as the entire passage speaks of India’s role in international stage and how it acquired a unique status in the international stage. Part B 11 – 15 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. B 16 – 25 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A A preposition indicating source is needed. (B) is illogical because “by” indicates that the marble did the carving, (C) is illogical because “about” is used to introduce a topic or to indicate position. (D) is illogical because “at” is used to indicate position. (D) is illogical because “at” is used to indicate a position. (A) is correct because “from” indicates that the source if the bottle was the material called marble. 20. D A prepositional phrase indicating a position is needed. (A) “by the yard” and (C) “in yards” are illogical because the measurement “yard” cannot belong to a hand. (B) is illogical because “between” indicates the presence of two objects. (D) is correct because “within a yard” means not more than a yard away (distance).
21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. A 26-30 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D Part D 31 – 35 31. B 32. A 33. A 34. A 35. C 36–40 36. B (iv) follow (i) as (iv) refers to introspection as mentioned in (ii) (“ask himself why there is a need in himself to give advice”). So options (a) and (c) can be eliminated. (i) follows (ii) because the ‘such behaviour’ in (i) refers to the manager offering advice unnecessarily as mentioned in (ii). 37. D (i) follows (v) as (i) refers to the depository participants as mentioned in (v). Moreover both refer to the Act on depositories. So options (b) and (c) can be eliminated. (iii) is the proper opening sentence of the paragraph as it introduces the topic of the para. 38. A (ii) follows (i) as (ii) refers to the suggestions floated around by the committees and in the conferences that are referred to in (i). Options (b) and (d) can be eliminated. (iv) follows (iii) as (iv) explains the contrast (divergent perceptions) to what is stated in (iii) (follow one route). 39. C (i) follows (iv) as ‘He’ in (i) refers to ‘a person’ mentioned in (iv). (iii) follows (ii) as (iii) explains the concept of ‘habeas corpus”. 40. B ‘He’ in (iv) refers to a ‘godly person’ as mentioned in (i). So (iv) follows (I).
Section II : Mathematical Ability 41. A Suppose Salary of B = Rs. 100. Then salary of A = Rs. 100 + Rs. 25 = Rs. 125. If A’s salary is Rs. 125, then B’s salary is = Rs. 100. If A’s salary is Rs. 100, then B’s salary is = (Rs. 100 H Rs. 100)/125 = Rs. 80. 100 B 80 = 20. Therefore, B’s salary is lower than that of A by 20%. 42. A
Portion of milk in 1st pot = 3/5. Portion of milk in 2nd pot = 7/10. Portion of milk in 3rd pot = 11/15. Therefore, portion of milk in the mixture = (3/5) + (7/10) + (11/15) = 61/30. Similarly, portion of water in the mixture = (2/5) + (3/10) + (4/15) = 29/30. Therefore, ratio of milk and water in the mixture = (61/30) : (29/30) = 61 : 29.
43. B
Suppose at the beginning of the term, the number of students under 15 years of age = 5x. Then, the number of students over 15 years of age = 4x. Number of students under 15 years age at the end of the session = 5x B 20. Number of students over 15 years at the end of the term = 4x + 20. Therefore, (5x B 20) : (4x + 20) = 7 : 8. 8(5x B 20) = 7(4x + 20) 40x B 160 = 28x + 140. 12x = 300 2 x = 25. Hence, total number of students = 5x + 4x = 9x = 9 H 25 = 225.
44. C
ABC 100 : 125 120 : 100 4:5 6:5 A : B : C = 24 : 30 : 25. Total money = Rs. 395. Share of A = (24/79) H 395 = Rs. 120.
45. C
Suppose B invested Rs. x. A’s Rs. 8400 for 12 months = Rs. 100800 for 1 month. B’s Rs. x for 10 months = 10x for 1 month. Ratio of their investment = 100800 : 10x = Ratio of profits = 3 : 2. Therefore, 100800/10x = 3/2. 30x = 201600 2 x = 6720. Hence, B’s capital = Rs. 6720.
46. A
Since the trains are running in the same direction, the speed of the faster train with respect to the man is 50 – 30 = 20 km/hr. the distance covered by the faster train in 1 hr. = 20 kms. i.e. the distance covered by the faster train in 3600 seconds = 20 kms. = 20 × 1000 m. The distance covered by the faster train in 18 seconds = (20 × 1000 × 18)/3600 = 100 m. Hence, the length of the faster train = 100 m.
47. B
Loss = CP% of CP. SP = Rs. 9. CP – (CP/100) × CP = 9 2 CP(100 – CP) = 900 2 CP = 10 or 90.
48. B
Suppose the maximum marks of each subject = 100. Maximum marks of all four subjects = 100 × 4 = 400. Therefore, total marks obtained by the student = (60 × 400)/100 = 240. Sum of the ratios = 3 + 4 + 6 + 7 = 20. Marks obtained in first subject = (3/20) × 240 = 36. Marks obtained in second subject = (4/20) × 240 = 48. Marks obtained in third subject = (6/20) × 240 = 72. Marks obtained in fourth subject = (7/20) × 240 = 84. Hence, the student gets more than 50% marks only in two subjects.
49. B
Let the numbers be 4x and 7x. The difference of their squares = (7x)² – (4x)² = 49x² – 16x² = 33x². According to the question; 33x² = 132 2 x² = 4 2 x = 2. Hence, the numbers are 8, 14.
50. B
Average of 8 increases by 2 or total age of 8 increases by 8 increases by 8 × 2 = 16 years. Age of men replaced = 20 + 24 = 44 years. Age of 2 women = 44 + 16 = 60 years. Average age = 60/2 = 30 years.
51. B
Let the ages of Kirti and Lahiri be ‘K’ and ‘L’ respectively. Given, K=2L and (K+3)+(L+3)=42 ބ2L+3+L+3=42 ބ3L+6=42 ބ3L=42−6=36 ބL=12 ބK=2×12=24 years.
52. A
Let the original radius of the cylinder be R1 and let the new radius of the cylinder be R2 and the height of the cylinder be ‘H’. Then, original volume of the cylinder V1 = πR12H and the new volume of the cylinder, V2 = πR22H Given, V2 = 4V1 ބπR22H = 4 πR12H ބR2 = 2R1. Therefore, the radius of the cylinder was increased by [(R2 – R1)/R1] × 100 = [(2R1 – R1)/R1] × 100 = 100%.
53. B The total marks obtained by the class of 30 students with the average mark 45 is 30×45. The total marks obtained by the class of 45 students with the average mark 30 is 45×30. Then, the average obtained by the 75 students together is = [ (30 × 45) + (45 × 30) ] / 75 = 36. 54. B
Let the cost of one orange, one apple, one banana be C, A and B respectively. Given, 8A+9C=50, 6A+9B=37.50, 5C+5B=17.50 Adding the three equations, we get, 14A+14C+14B=105 ބC + A + B = 105/14 = 7.5.
55. C
Let the required angle be ‘Y’. Then, complementary angle of ‘Y’ is 90°−Y, as the sum of two complementary angles is 90°. And, supplementary angle of ‘Y’ is 180°−Y, as the sum of two supplementary angles is 180°. Given, (90° – Y) / (180° – Y) = 2/7 or Y = 54°.
56. D 57. C
58. B
Given, a:b=2:3 and b:c=2:5, then, a:b:c=2×2:3×2:5×3=4:6:15. Therefore, we can conclude that the smallest values of a, b, and c which satisfy the given ratios are a=4, b=6 and c=15. Then, [ (2a – 3b + c)/(2b +a – c) ] = [ {(2 × 4) – (3 × 6) + 15 } / {(2 × 6 + 4 – 15 }] = 5. Given, n(F)=58%, n(S)=47%, n(F∩S)=22%, n(S∩T)=19%, n(T∩F)=21%, n(F∩S∩T)=7% As all the members of jury voted, we have, n(FST)=100%.
Then, as n(F)+n(S)+n(T)−n(F∩S)−n(S∩T)−n(T∩F)+n(F∩S∩T)=n(FST)
59. C 60. A
ބ58+47+n(T)−22−19−21+7=100 ބ112−62+n(T)=100 ބn(T)=100−112+62=50 Therefore, 50% of the jury liked the third movie. From these as 19% liked second movie also and 21% liked the first movie also, the percent of the jury which liked only the third movie is 50−19−21+7=17% (as 7% liked all the three movies). Therefore, 17% of the 100 member jury liked only the third movie or 17 members of the jury liked only the third movie. Given, 2a+3b=12 and 3a+2b=13. Solving the two equations, we get, a=3 and b=2. Then, 5a+7b=5×3+7×2=15+14=29. Given, a+b=4 and ab=3. As (a + b)2 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b) we have 43 = a3 + b3 + 3 × 3 × 4 or a3 + b3 = 28.
Section III: Part A 61 – 70 61. D If more pepper was sold than produced, some sales must have come from surplus stocks, and those stocks must have dropped. 62. A The educators want to lower the requirement for success in standardised tests because they believe that a person’s level of self esteem becomes established based on the test scores and before he or she joins the course. 63. A Options (b) and (d) are incorrect because some buildings that are less than five floors may have lifts. This is not clear from the statements. Because it is a law, it is obvious that all buildings that have more than four floors will have lifts. 64. A According to the author the researcher’s conclusion is not valid. The author feels that football and hockey players were by nature more aggressive than the swimmers. This is brought out only in option (a). 65. B The given passage discusses ironies in man’s existence. Only option (b) brings this out. Inspite of favourable conditions the farmer could not raise anything of value. 66. B According to the passage, when donors are asked for less, they feel hurt because their worth is not recognised. So the assumption is that a good fund raiser will value the worth of the donor and not ask him for too little. Option (c) is not true because when asked for large donations, a donor may not give the amount asked. (a) a is inappropriate as it may not be worth asking as the donor may suggest a smaller amount. 67. C Mr. Lester feels that man’s claims on the principal biological systems have reached unsustainable levels which would lead to their destruction. So there is need for humans to behave responsibly towards these systems. Option (b) is not valid as the author objects to human claims which are unsustainable. This does not mean humans should not make any claims. They should make sustainable claims. 68. A This question can be answered by elimination. Option (b) is against what is stated; (c) is irrelevant. The author lays more stress on learning the positive aspects and therefore may not be supporting a balanced presentation as given in option (d). 69. B The author draws up an analogy between dangerous foods and harmful products such as cigarettes and alcoholic beverages. 70. D Services will be improved, it is hoped, for a certain segment of customers — those that shop during the rush hours — but not for all customers. This fact makes choice (a) inappropriate. To attract new customers is not stated in the passage as an objective, so (b) is inappropriate. The utilisation of excess capacity, as in (c), is a useful by– product of the new system, but it is not the main goal. The principal purpose of the owners is to make more money from the change by increasing income by an amount worth more than the added costs. Therefore, (d) is the appropriate answer. 71–75 71. C The Constitution provides a parliamentary system of government at the centre as well as in the states and the President at the centre is the nominal executive head. The President is a part of the Parliament – he is the nominal head. So A is false. Only when a bill gets the President’s assent does it become an act or law from the date of his assent. So R is true. 72. D The Congress ministers agreed to support Britain in World War II only in return of independence being granted. The Viceroy could promise this only after the war. In October – November 1939, the Congress ministries resigned in protest from office. So A is true, but R is not true. 73. C It was in 1919 that the all India Khilafat Committee decided to withdraw all cooperation from the government if their demands were not met. Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad organised a countrywide agitation – Khilafat Movement in March 1919. The Rowlatt Act was passed authorising the government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law. It was an assault on the civil liberties of the Indian people.
74. D
75. B
Inspite of opposition from all Indian members of the legislative council, the government passed this Act. After the decline of the Mughal empire perhaps the most formidable province to emerge was that of the Marathas. Under the capable leadership of the Peshwas, the Marathas uprooted the Mughal authority and established their rule. At one time they claimed the right to be the chief inheritors of the Mughal dominion. So only A is true. Agricultural productivity in India is still a matter of concern, one of the main reasons being dependence on natural irrigation. So better irrigation facilities will reduce farmers’ dependence on rains. It is also true that waste of irrigation water should be reduced or eliminated.
76-80 76. A 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. D 81 – 85 81. B Anil is the brother of Daya and Daya is the son of Chandra. So Anil is the son of Chandra. Now Bimal is the father of Chandra. So, Anil is the grandson of Bimal. 82. C
Boy’s maternal uncle will be brother of boy’s mother. Maternal uncle of mother’s brother and maternal uncle of lady are brother and maternal uncle of lady are brothers means lady is sister of mother’s brother. i.e. lady is the mother of the boy. So, the boy is woman’s son.
83. D
Q and R are sisters. So T is the mother of R means T is the mother of Q and R. S is the son of T means S is the brother of Q. Thus, P is the son of Q means S is the maternal uncle of P.
84. D
M – N × T + Q means M is the mother of N who is the father of T who is the daughter of Q i.e. M is 0the grandmother of the daughter of Q i.e. M is the mother of Q. Since this is not given in the choices. So, the fact (D) derived from N × T + Q is true.
85. D
Clearly, B is the brother of A, A’s son is D’s brother. This means D is the daughter of A. Since C and D are sisters, C is also the daughter of A. So B is the uncle of C.
86 – 90 86. A 87. C 88. B Exemplary is that which can be emulated or imitated. Similarly abominable is that which is hateful. Option (c) cannot be the answer as forbidden is that which is prohibited and not abstained. 89. B ‘Praise’ is a laudatory statement or speech. Similarly ‘tirade’ is an abusive or castigating speech. A speech may or may not be boring. 90. C An anthology is a collection of poems. Similarly a constellation is a collection or group of stars. Dictionary and not an encyclopaedia, is a collection of words. Part B — 91 – 95 91. D 92. A 93. D I is not true because right to education can be made derivative of the right to life or right to equal opportunities, both of which are fundamental rights. 94. B 95. C Part C — 96 – 100 96. A 97. B 98. B 99. B 100. C Part D — 101 – 105 101. C The reader of Investment Monthly magazine may not be representative of the average consumer and therefore any generalisation based on such a sample could be erroneous. 102. C The jet fighters can shoot down wanted and unwanted planes. The weed killer kills both wanted and unwanted plants. 103. B The size of the tallest figure being built is compared to the existing one. This means, that at present, Statue of Liberty is one of the tallest structures. Even this will be eclipsed by the proposed edifice. 104. B From the statements we can understand that the mayor hosted a party only for the students that admitted mentally retarded children. This means that all the students who attended were mentally retarded and had an IQ of less than 60. 105. C If many squirrels died, obviously there was nothing to eat the grass. So the grass grew tall. Because of the disease, the squirrel population decreased. Obviously the population of kites will also decrease. Section : IV — 106 – 155 106. D 107. D 108. D 109. B 110. B 111. B 112. D 113.C 114. A 115.B 116.B 117. C 118. B 119. A 120. D 121. A 122. C 123. C 124. B 125. D 126. C 127. B 128. D 129. A 130. C 131. C 132. A 133. B 134. B 135. C 136. B 137. C 138. B 139. B 140. C 141. B 142. C
143. A 144. D 145. C 146. B 147. B 148. B 149. B 150. A 151. A 152. C 153. D 154. B 155. B Section V: Legal Aptitude 156 – 200 156. C Since Mr. Gangadhar and Mr. Srinivas were involved in legitimate business competition, Mr. Gangadhar is not liable to compensate Mr. Srinivas. 157. B 158. C 159. A 160. A 161. B 162. C 163. C 164. C 165. D 166. A In this case Bhushan is confined within the four walls of the storage room, he is prevented from leaving the place because of the locking, and hence his personal liberty is deprived. Anand is liable for false imprisonment. 167. C Since Bhushan is not aware of Anand’s action of locking the door, he will not know that he is bound in the storage room, or that he is prevented from leaving the storage room. Thus Bhushan does not even know that his personal liberty is deprived. Thus Anand has no liability. 168. C Here Anand locked the door without being aware of Bhushan being inside the storage room. So far as Anand is concerned he did confine Bhushan within four walls nor did he prevent from Bhushan leaving the place and hence he did not deprive the personal liberty of Bhushan. Thus Anand has no liability. 169. A In this case Bhushan is confined within the four walls of the storage room, he is prevented from leaving the place because of the locking, and hence his personal liberty is deprived. However, since neither Anand nor Bhushan are aware of a second unlocked door, which Bhushan could have used to go out, Anand is liable for false imprisonment. 170. D Divya suffered no legal detriment. Over–speeding is no legal right. So she cannot claim forbearance of her legal rights. 171. A The hospital had no choice but to treat Ghosh Babu under the circumstances. If the hospital cannot recover the expenses on treating Ghosh Babu, it would mount to injustice. 172. A In this option there is an apprehension created of an imminent danger. In options (B) there is no imminent danger. In option (C) since Sohan did not see the bat no apprehension is created. 173. B The driver is clearly negligent because he was trying to overtake another bus at a turn in which position he would not have been able to see the approaching lorry. 174. B Since Rahul and his friends entered Chakraborthy’s room with sticks, and since they have a history of having quarrelled, Chakraborty was in imminent danger of bodily harm. He was justified in throwing the boiling tea to defend his self. 175. C L had no intention of any kind to kill the child. It was an accident. But he is guilty of speeding beyond the limit with dysfunctional brakes. 176. B 177. A 178. D 179. A 180. B 181. A 182. B 183. A 184. C 185. A 186. A 187. A 188. B 189. B 190. A 191. B 192. A 193. A 194. A 195. A 196. A 197. B 198. B 199. D 200. B Prepared by..
Himayathnagar, Hyderabad - 500 029. A.P.
