less negative as we go down the alkali group for : (1) Alkali fluorides. (2) Alkali chlorides. (3) Alkali Bromides. (4)
Form Number :
Paper Code
English
(0000CMD302117001)
*0000CMD302117001*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2017 - 2018)
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE PHASE : I Test Type : COMMON TEST Test Pattern : NEET(UG) TEST DATE : 06 - 08 - 2017 Important Instructions Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so 1.
A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2.
Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3.
Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4.
Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5.
Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6.
Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
7.
A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
8.
Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2018 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-5156100
[email protected]
www.allen.ac.in
Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING 1.
The electrostatic force between two point charges q1 & q2 at separation r is given by F =
2.
3.
4.
k q1 q 2 . r2
The constant k : (1) depends on the system of units only (2) depends on the medium between the charges only (3) depends on both the system of units and the medium between the charges (4) is independent of both the system of units and the medium between the charges. In the diagram shown P is a point negative charge. It’s weight is balanced by the electric force due to the fixed very long wire. The equilibrium of the particle is
(1) stable, for vertical displacements (2) neutral for vertical displacements (3) stable for horizontal displacements (parallel to the wire) (4) neutral for horizontal displacements (parallel to the wire) Two small balls, each having equal positive charge Q are suspended by two insulating strings of equal length L from a hook fixed to a stand. If the whole set-up is transferred to a artificial satellite in orbit around the earth, the tension in each string is equal to
L
Two small spheres with mass m 1 and m 2 hang from massless, insulating threads of length 1 and 2 . The two spheres carry charges q1 and q2 respectively. The spheres hang such that they are on same horizontal level and the threads are inclined to the vertical at angles 1 and 2 . Which of the condition is required if 1 = 2 .
2 2 1 1 m1,q1
m2,q2
(1) m1 = m2 (2) |q1| = |q2| (3) 1 = 2 (4) 5.
q1 q 2 m1 m 2
The diagram shows the arrangement of three small uniformly charged spheres A, B and C. The arrows indicate the direction of the electrostatic forces acting between the spheres(for example, the left arrow on sphere A indicates the electrostatic force on sphere A due to sphere B). At least two of the spheres are positively charged. Which sphere, if any, could be negatively charged ?
L A
q m
mq
(1) zero
(2)
kQ L2
kQ 2 2L2
(4)
kQ 2 4L2
(3)
0000CMD302117001
B
C
(1) sphere A
(2) sphere B
(3) sphere C
(4) no sphere
E-1/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 6.
Two semicircular rings lying in same plane, of uniform linear charge density have radius r and 2r. They are joined using two straight uniformly charged wires of linear charge density and length r as shown in figure. The magnitude of electric field at common centre of semi circular rings is-
9.
r
2r
7.
8.
1 (2) 4 2 r o
1 2 (3) 4 r o
1 (4) 4 r o
The figure shows two large, closely placed, parallel, nonconducting sheets with identical (positive) uniform surface charge densities, and a sphere with a uniform (positive) volume charge density. Four points marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 are shown in the space in between. If E1, E2, E3 and E4 are magnitude of net electric fields at these points respectively then :
(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (2) E1 > E2 > E3 = E4 (3) E3 = E4 > E2 > E1 (4) E1 = E2 = E3 = E4 Two identical conducting spheres M and N has charges qm and qn respectively. A third identical neutral sphere P is brought in contact with M and then seperated. Now sphere P is brought in contact with N and then separated, final charge on sphere P is (1)
q m 2q n 4
(3) q m
E-2/20
qn 2
2
experienced by the dipole p 2 is :A
10.
1 3 (1) 4 2 r o
p 1 at point A and the other of dipole moment p
at point B, are as shown in the figure. The torque
Two small electric dipoles, one of dipole moment
p1
p2 x
B
(1) Zero (2) (3) Can't determined (4) None of these Four charges are placed at the circumference of dial clock as shown in figure. If the clock has only hour hand, then the resultant force on a charge q0 placed at the centre, points in the direction which show the time as :– +q 12 -q
3
9 q0
+q
6 -q
11.
(1) 1:30 (2) 4:30 (3) 7:30 (4) 10:30 Find out work done by electric field in shifting 4 2 C from point P to S which 27 are shown in the figure :
a point charge
(1)
12.
100 J 3
(2)
200 J 3
(3) 100 J (4) Zero A point charge q is located at a distance r from the centre O of an uncharged conducting spherical layer whose inside and outside radii are equal to R1 and R2 respectively. Find the potential at the point O if r < R1.
(2)
qm qn 4
Kq Kq Kq (1) R R r 1 2
(4)
q m 2q n 2
(3)
Kq Kq Kq r R 2 R1
Kq Kq Kq (2) r R R 1 2 (4) None
0000CMD302117001
Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 13.
Figure shows a copper wire of nonuniform cross section carrying current toward right for sectors A, B and C. Then which of the following is incorrect:-
16.
(C) (A)
14.
(B)
(1) iB > iA > iC (i = current) (2) EB > EA > EC (E = electric field) (3) VB > VA > VC (V = drift velocity) (4) JB > JA > JC (J = current density) In the presence of static charges in the space, line integral of the electric field E.d for a closed
17.
A solid non conducting sphere charged in such a way that in it as we move away from the centre, the magnitude of electric field decreases then which of the following statement is correct : (1) the sphere is uniformly charged (2) the potential at surface is less than that at its centre (3) the potential at surface is more than that at its centre (4) the potential at surface may be less than that at its centre Two equipotential spherical surfaces having potential 20 V and 0 V are as shown in figure. There is no charge anywhere in space except on the surface of both the spheres. Then which of the following figure represents the nature of electric field in region between the spherical surfaces by electric lines of forces. 0V
path as shown, is carried out. d E
20V
15.
(A) The value of the integral is independent of the shape of the path. (B) The value of the integral is independent of where charges may be located relative to the path. (C) The value of the integral is always constant. (D) The value of the integral is always negative. (1) B, C, D (2) A, C, D (3) A, B, C (4) A, B, D A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 showing a full–scale deflection at 50 A. Consider following statements. (A) The resistance needed to use it as a voltmeter of range 50 volt is 106 . (B) The resistance needed to use it as a voltmeter of range 50 volt is 105 (C) The resistance needed to use it as an ammeter of range 10 mA is 0.5 (D) The resistance needed to use it as an ammeter of range 10 mA is 1.0 Select correct alternative :(1) Only A, D (2) Only A, C (3) Only B, D (4) Only B, C
0000CMD302117001
18.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Eight point charges (can be assumed as small spheres uniformly charged and their centres at the corner of the cube) having values q each are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through square surface ABCD of the cube is
q (1) 24 0
q (2) 12 0
q (3) 6 0
q
(4) 8 0
E-3/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 19.
A positive point charge Q is placed (on the axis of disc) at a distance of 4R above the centre of a disc of radius R. The magnitude of electric flux through the disc is . Now a hemispherical shell of radius R is placed over the disc such that it forms a closed surface. The flux through the curved surface taking direction of area vector along outward normal as positive, is
23.
24. 20.
21.
(1) zero (2) –2 (3) – (4) 2 The electric flux through a spherical Gaussian surface is zero. If E be the electric field intensity at any point on the surface and q be the net charge enclosed, then (1) E and q must be zero (2) q must be zero but E may not be zero (3) E must be zero but q may not be zero (4) E and q must not be zero. Electrical potential ' V ' in space as a function of 1 1 1 co-ordinates is given by, V = . Then find x y z the electric field intensity at (1, 1, 1). (1) Zero
22.
(2)
3
(3) 2
25.
(1) The electric field at A is less than at B. (2) The electric field at B is more than at A. (3) The thermal power generated at A is more than at B in an element of small same width. (4) The thermal power generated at B is more than at A in an element of small same width. A 150 m long metal wire connects points A and B. The electric potential at point B is 50 V less than that at point A. If the conductivity of the metal is 60 × 106 mho/m, then magnitude of the current density in the wire is equal to : (2) 5.5 × 10–3 A/m2 (1) 11 × 10–4 A/m2 (3) 4 × 107 A/m2 (4) 20 × 106 A/m2 The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if an external electric field is switched on then :-
C q
(4) 3
The curve represents the distribution of potential along the straight line joining the two charges Q1 and Q2 (separated by a distance r) :
26. 1. | Q1 | > | Q2 | 2. Q1 is positive in nature 3. A and B are equilibrium points. 4. C is a point of unstable equilibrium for positive charge Then which of the above statements are correct? (1) 1 and 3 (2) 1, 2 and 3 (3) 1, 2 and 4 (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
E-4/20
In the figure a conductor of nonuniform crosssection is shown. A steady current flows in it.
(1) only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute (2) only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute (3) both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute (4) force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change A uniform wire of resistance R is stretched uniformly n times & then cut to form five identical wires. These wires are arranged as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between A & B will be:
(1)
nR 5
(2)
R 5 n2
(3)
n2R 5
(4)
n2R 2
0000CMD302117001
Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 27.
Find the equivalent resistance between point A and B. (all resistors are in ohms)
31.
With keys k1 and k2 closed : if PS < QR then B P
Q k1
A
C
G S
R
k2
D
(1) VB = VD
(2)
Resistivity
Resistivity
(1)
Conductivity
(3)
Conductivity
(4)
Resistivity
29.
32.
(3) VB < VD (4) None Which graph best represents the relationship between conductivity and resistivity for a solid ?
Resistivity
28.
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6 A lead wire and an iron wire are connected in parallel. Their respective specific resistance are in the ratio 49 : 24. The former carries 80 % more current than the latter and the latter is 47% longer than the former. Determine the ratio of cross sectional area of lead wire to that of the iron wire. (1) 5 : 2 (2) 2 : 5 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 In the given network of four resistances, the equivalent resistance is
(2) VB > VD
Conductivity
33.
30.
Conductivity
In the circuit shown:
(1) 20 (2) 5.4 (3) 12 (4) 4.5 Voltage V v/s I graph is shown in the figure.
(1) resistance in region I is ohmic, II & III are non-ohmic (2) resistance in region II is zero and III is ohmic (3) resistance in region II is zero and III is non-ohmic (4) in I it is ohmic, II it is non-ohmic.
0000CMD302117001
(1) = 2.5 A, V = – 3.5 V (2) = 2.5 A, V = 3.5 V (3) = – 2.5 A, V = 3.5 V (4) = 2.5 A, V = –3.5 V
E-5/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 34.
Four circuits are given in the options below. In all the circuits voltmeters, ammeter and cells are ideal. The readings of each ammeter and voltmeter are shown in their neighbourhood (in bold letters). In which pair of circuits shown below, readings of voltmeters V1 and V2 and ammeter A may be correct ?
35.
In the figure shown, all the resistors have the same resistance. If the ideal ammeter reads 2A and the ideal voltmeter reads 15 V, what is the resistance of each resistor?
A V
(1)
(3) 36.
37.
38.
5 ohm 2 15 ohm 2
(2) 2 and 4 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1 and 4
E-6/20
15 ohm 4
(4)
5 ohm 3
A cow and a man are standing in a meadow when lightning strikes the ground nearby. Who is more likely to be killed and Why ? (1) Cow, because man is wearing shoes (2) Cow, because its legs are far apart (3) Man, because cow is poor conductor of electricity (4) Both are equally likely to be killed The efficiency of a cell when connected to a resistance R is 60%. What will be its efficiency if the external resistance is increased to six times. (1) 90% (2) 60% (3) 80% (4) 10% Suppose a current carrying wire has a cross-sectional area that gradually become smaller along the wire has the shape of a very long cone as shown in figure.
A
(1) 1 and 3
(2)
B
(1) Electric current is different in different portions of wire. (2) Electric field at point A is same as that of point B. (3) Drift speed of electrons at point A is lesser than that of at point B. (4) Drift speed of electrons at point A is same as that of at point B.
0000CMD302117001
Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 39.
500 no. of identical galvanic cells, each of internal resistance 8 are arranged as several in–series groups of cells connected in parallel. The arrangement has been laid out so that power output in an externally connected resistance of value 10 is maximum. If n number of cells are connected in every series group that form parallel combination, then find value of n.
In a practical wheat stone bridge circuit as shown, when one more resistance of 100 is connected in parallel with unknown resistance 'x', then ratio 1/2 become '2'. 1 is balance length. AB is a uniform wire. Then value of 'x' must be:
42.
copper strips 100
x G
A 1
E1 E2
En E
43. R = 10
40.
(1) 25 (2) 15 (3) 5 (4) 35 Find current in the branch CD of the circuit (in ampere). 44.
41.
(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 400
A copper wire of resistance 4 is stretched to thrice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire becomes. (1) 4 times
(2) 9 times
(3) 16 times
(4) 25 times
In the circuit shown the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 4A and 20V respectively. The meters are non-ideal, then R is
(2) less than 5 (3) greater than 5 (4) between 4 and 5. 45.
0000CMD302117001
r
(1) 5
(1) 15 A (2) 10 A (3) 5A (4) 20 A battery of internal resistor ' r ' and e.m.f. is connected to a variable external resistance AB. If the sliding contact is moved from A to B, then terminal potential difference of battery will :
(1) remain constant & is independent of value of external resistance (2) increase continuously (3) decrease continuously (4) first increase and then will decrease.
B copper strips 2
Currents upto 100 A are to be measured with the help of an ammeter designed for a maximum current of 10 A and having resistance of 0.1 . The resistance of additional shunt must be (1) 0.1
(3)
1 100
(2)
1 9
(4) None of these
E-7/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
E-8/20
H2 can be obtained by (1) Electrolysis of acidified water using platinum electrode (2) Obtained as by product in manufacture of NaOH by electrolysis of brine solution. (3) Reaction of steam with CO (4) All Incorrect statement about hydrides is : (1) SiH4 is an electron precise hydride (2) Only possible hydride of group 6 is CrH (3) Hydride gap belongs to group number 7, 8, 9 (4) All s-block metal hyrides are saline/ionic hydrides. In which of the following method of removal of hardness Ca+2 or Mg+2 ions are not separate out from water : (1) Permutit method (2) Clark's method (3) Using calgon (4) Ion exchange method Which of the following is not correctly matched on the basis of preparation : (1) BeF2–Thermal decomposition of (NH4)2 BeF4 (2) BeCl2 – Reductive chlorination of BeO (3) NaOH – Electrolysis of brine solution using Hg cathode (4) BeH2 – Direct combination of Be and H2 Which of the following is not correct match on the basis of uses : (1) Be – Making window of x-rays tubes (2) NaOH – Petroleum refining (3) Anhydrous CaCl2 – Drying agent for NH3 (4) CaO – Purification of Sugar Ratio of SiO2 and Al2O3 in ideal cement is : (1) Between 2.5 to 4.0 (2) Between 5 to 10 (3) Between 1.5 to 2.5 (4) Between 3.5 to 5.5 H f value (Enthalpy of formation) becomes less negative as we go down the alkali group for : (1) Alkali fluorides (2) Alkali chlorides (3) Alkali Bromides (4) Alkali iodides
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
Charcoal is obtained by : (1) Heating coal in asbence of air (2) Heating wood in absence of air (3) Heating hydrocarbon in presence of air (4) By coal gasification Which of the following is not correctly matched: (1) Ammonical Cu2Cl2 – Absorbent of CO (2) Na2B4O7.4H2O – Kernite (3) BF 3 + LiAlH 4 – Industrial method of preparation of B2H6 (4) CO – gives unsymmetrical cleavage of B2H6 Which of the following statement is not correct for estimation of CO : (1) I2O5 is used (2) I2 is titrated with hypo solution (3) CO act as reducing agent (4) Hypo solution convert into Na2S2O6 Which of the following does not give disproportionation reaction in aqueous solution: (1) Al+ (2) Ga+ (3) Tl+ (4) Cu+ Which of the following order is not correct : (1) Diamond > Graphite (Density) (2) Graphite < Diamond (C–C bond strength) (3) Graphite > Diamond (Thermodynamics stability) (4) Diamond > Graphite (Heat conductivity) Talc Mg3(OH)2(Si2O5)2 is an example of : (1) Cyclic silicate (2) Single chain silicate (3) Sheet silicate (4) 3 ‘D’ silicate The strongest B–F bond is present in : (2) H2N–BF2 (1) BF3 (3) H3C–BF2 (4) HO–BF2 Which of the following order is not correct about B2H6 : (1) B–Hb–B < B–Ht Bond strength H < H B H Bond angle (2) H b B b t t
61.
(3) Hb–B > Ht–B Bond length (4) Ht–B > Hb–B s-character in hybrid orbitals Which of the following order is not correct : (1) NO < N2 I.E. (2) B2 > C2 Paramagnetism Bond length (3) CO > CO+ + – (4) O2 > O2 Number of electrons in BMO
0000CMD302117001
Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
Which of the following molecule is polar but non-planar : (1) O3 (2) PH3 (3) H2O2 (4) Both (2) and (3) Which of the following is not a intermediate product in Solvay’s process : (1) (NH4)2CO3 (2) NH4HCO3 (3) CaCl2 (4) NaHCO3 Which of the following melting point order is not correct ? (1) MgO > BeO (2) SnCl2 > SnCl4 (3) H2O2 > H2O (4) AlF3 > AlCl3 Which of the following property decreases down the group in group-II B (1) Atomic size (2) EN (3) Covalent character in chlorides (4) Melting point Symmetrical hydrogen bonding is not a reason of: (1) Deliquescent nature of NaOH (2) Formation of HF2– (3) Stability of chloral hydrate (4) Extra stability of [Ni(dmg)2] Which of the following compound can dissolve in excess NaOH : (1) CrCl3 (2) Be(OH)2 (3) Al2O3 (4) All of these Which of the following order is not correct : (1) O– < S– (I.E.) (2) Be+ > B+ (E.A.) (3) Li– < C– < O– (I.E.) (4) P+ < S+ (E.A.) Stability of isobutylene can be best explained by :(1) Inductive effect (2) Mesomeric effect (3) Hyper conjugation effect (4) Steric effect
0000CMD302117001
70.
Incorrect order of resonance energy is :(1)
>
(2)
CH2
(3)
CH3 – C – O O
(4)
71.
>
>
CH3 – C – OH O
>
Correct order of basic strength is :-
NH2 (I)
NH2 CH3
(II)
OCH3
N(CH3)2
(III)
(IV)
N(CH3)2 OCH3
OCH3
72.
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > I > II (3) IV > III > II > I (4) III > IV > I > II Which of the following alkyl halide produces white precipitate of AgCl most readily on reaction with AgNO3? CH 2Cl
Cl (2)
(1)
CH 2Cl
Cl (3)
(4)
OCH3
NO2
E-9/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 73.
Select odd one out among following compounds?
78.
O
O
(1)
Arrange following compounds in order of decreasing acidity :OH
OH
(2) (I)
O
O
(3)
(4)
Select incorrect statement about following molecule
(III)
(1) It is less basic than aniline (2) One of the resonating structure of this molecule shows geometrical isomerism. (3) Tautomer of this molecule shows geometrical isomerism.
OH O
O (3)
OH
O
O
O
80.
(4)
O
(b)
(d)
(I)
(2) –NH3
(3) –N = O
(4) –NO2
(II)
(III)
Correct statement about these three compounds :(1) Stability order : II > III > I (2) Stability order : III > II > I (3) Heat of combustion : I > III > II (4) Both (1) and (3) statements are correct Which of the following reaction is possible in forward direction?
(1) RSH RONa R S N a ROH
(2) R–C CH + NaOH R C C N a H 2O
OH (3)
(1) –OH
(4)
OH
(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > c > a > d (3) b > c > d > a (4) b > d > a > c Which of the following group can show both +M and –M effect?
E-10/20
(2)
O
O
81.
77.
O
(1)
Compare C = C bond length :-
(c)
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) III > I > II > IV (3) III > II > I > IV (4) I > III > II > IV In which of the following compound C = O bond have maximum value of rotational energy barrier?
(3)
HO
(a)
OCH3
O
(2)
O
76.
79.
(4) It is less basic than CH3CONH2 Which of the following has most acidic hydrogen?
(1)
(IV) NO2
Ph–C–NH
O
OH
OH
O
75.
CH3
Cl
O 74.
(II)
ONa + NaHCO 3
+ CO2 + H2O
(4) R H NaNH2 R Na NH3
0000CMD302117001
Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 82.
Which of following will not show hyperconjugation effect? (1)
86.
Select incorrect statement (1) Meso compounds are always optically inactive
(2)
(2) Racemic mixture is always optically inactive (3) Enantiomers are always optical isomers
H
(4) Diastereomers are always optical isomers (3)
(4)
H
H 83.
87.
(1) 1–ethyl–2, 2–dimethyl cyclohexane
In which of the following pair second resonating structure is more stable than first?
(2) 2–methyl pentanoic acid (3) 2–ethyl–3–methyl pentanoic acid
(1) CH 2 CH O C H 2 CH O I II
(4) 2–formyl butanoic acid 88.
Which of the following is incorrect IUPAC name?
(2) CH3 NH C H2 C H 3 NH CH 2
Which of the following does not represent homologous? O
(3)
and
(1)
CHO
H (4) In both 2 and 3 84.
(2)
Out of the following the most basic isomer of formula C4H7N is :-
and OH
(1) CH3 C C CH 2 NH 2
C2H 5 CH3
(3)
OH
and
(2) CH CH C C NH 3 2 2 (4) H–C–OCH2CH3 and CH3–C–OCH2CH3
(3) HC C CH 2 CH 2 NH 2
O
(4)
89.
O
Which of the following will show tautomerism?
N
O
H
85.
(1)
(2)
(1)
Find correct relationship :-
O
COOH
and COOH
O
Position isomers (2)
(3)
and Geometrical isomers
(3)
and
OH (4)
and
0000CMD302117001
Chain isomers
OH Ring chain isomers
(4) O
O
90.
The maximum value of dihedral angle in anti-staggered form is :(1) 180°
(2) 60°
(3) 360°
(4) 90°
E-11/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 91.
92.
93.
94.
Read the following statements about hybridization technique of mendel and select the correct statement:(A) Emasculation of both male and female parents is required. (B) Emasculation of only male parent is required. (C) Emasculation of female parent is required. (D) Emasculation is not necessary. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) All correct Read the following statements and identify correct ones :(I) Gene that controle seed shape in garden pea is a pleiotropic gene. (II) Starch grain size in garden pea seeds is a codominant character. (III) Seed shape in garden pea is regulated by SBE gene. (1) I, II and III (2) I and III (3) Only II (4) II and III Read the following statements and find out incorrect one :(I) Flower colour in Mirabilis shows dominance. (II) Coat colour in cattles shows codominance. (III) Starch grain size in garden pea shows incomplete dominance. (IV) Wrinkled seed shape in garden pea is dominated by round shape. (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Only III (4) I and IV both Find out the correct match from column I, II and III of following table :-
95.
A cross is made between AaBB × AABb genotype individuals, then find out the correct option of probabilities of following offsprings :A B C D AABB AaBB AaBb aabb
96.
(1)
1/4
1/4
1/4
0
(2)
1/8
1/8
4/16
0/16
(3)
1/16
2/16
2/8
1/16
(4)
2/8
2/8
4/8
0/16
How many of following are the examples of codominance :(A) AB blood group (B) Sickle cell Trait (C) Feather colour in andalusion fowl (D) Coat colour in cattles
97.
98.
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two
A donar has blood group O +ve, then which of the following acceptor can recieve blood from donar :(1) A +ve (2) B –ve (3) O –ve (4) All blood groups In a typical monohybrid cross, plants of which generation show same phenotype and genotype(1) Parental generation (2) First filial generation (3) Second filial generation
Type of genotypes
Type of phenotypes
(A) Monohybrid
(I)
9
(1)
8
(B) Dihybrid
(II)
27
(2)
4
(C) Trihybrid
(III)
3
(3)
2
Cross type
(1) A – III – 3, B – I – 2, C – II – 1 (2) A – II – 1, B – III – 2, C – I – 3 (3) A – I – 2, B – III – 1, C – II – 3 (4) A – III – 3, B – II – 1, C – I – 2
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(4) Third filial generation 99.
Find out phenotypic categories in following crossA – AaBbCC × aaBBCc B – GgRrTt × ggrrTT C – aabbCC × AABBcc A
B
C
(1)
2
4
1
(2)
2
2
2
(3)
2
3
1
(4)
3
2
2
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Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 100. (A) A true breeding line is one that having undergone continuous self pollinatoin
105. Which of the following cytogenetical event is not executing here :-
(B) Show stable trait inheritances expression for several generation (C) Mendel selected 7 true breeding pea plant varieties as pair which were dissimilar except for one character with contrasting traits
Tall TT
Dwarf tt
Gemetes
Gemetes
Regarding to pure lines select the correct statement (1) A, B and C
(2) A and B
(3) A and C
(4) B and C
101. Which of the following is not true for F 2 generation of dihybrid cross (1) 9-phenotypic categories, 4 genotypic categories (2) 9-genotypic categories, 16 zygotic combination (3) 62.5% parental combination, 37.5% new combination (4) 4-types male gametes, 4 type female gemate
F1 generation
Tall Tt Gemetes
Selfing
Tall Tt Gemetes
F2 generation
102. Mendelian monohybrid cross is not a presentation of (1) Unit factor (2) Dominance (3) Monogenic extranuclear inheritance (4) Segregation 103. About genotype Rr select out the incorrect statement (1) Allelic gene pair (2) They control common character (3) They share common locus (4) can be present on non homologous chromosome 104. In pea plant, genotype (Bb) shows (1) Round seed with large sized starch grain (2) Round seed with intermediate sized starch grain (3) Round seed with small sized starch grain (4) Wrinkled seed with small sized starch
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Phenotypic ratio : tall : dwarf 3 : 1 Genotypic ratio :TT : Tt : tt 1 : 2 : 1
(1) Segregation of factors (2) Pairing of factor (3) Independent assortment of factors (4) Discreet nature of factors 106. In an example of incomplete dominance, pure red flowered plant are crossed with pure white flowered plant and the F1 individuals have pink flowers. Which one of the following is not correct? (1) Pink flowered plant will produce only pink flowered offsprings (2) Pink flowered plant will produce offsprings having three kinds of flowers, if self pollinated (3) The genes of the hybrid pink flowered plant will segregate, if self pollinated (4) Half of the offsprings of the pink flowered plant will be homozygous, if it was self-pollinated 107. A non-inheritable environmentally induced modification resembling the phenotype of a known gene, refers to :(1) Phenocopy (2) Genocopy (3) Genotype (4) Phenotype
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Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 108. Sickle cell anaemia is example of all except :(1) Pleiotropy (2) Multiple allelism (3) Co-dominance (4) Gene mutation 109. Which of the following is incorrect for garden pea? Character (1) Flower position
Genotype Homozygous or heterozygous
Phenotype
Tall
dwarf
Terminal F1 ?
(2) Seed colour
Homozygous or heterozygous
Yellow
(3) Pod colour
Homozygous or heterozygous
Green
(4) Pod shape
Only homozygous
Constricted
110. A character is controlled by 5 alleles. How many genotypes are possible for this character ? (1) 15 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 25 111. When F1 progeny resembles both the parents then the type of gene interaction is (1) Incomplete dominance (2) Complementary gene interaction (3) Codominance (4) Dominance 112. "When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters". This explains :(1) Law of dominance (2) Law of segregation (3) Law of independent assortment (4) Postulate of paired factors 113. Which of the following is true for test cross (A) It produces same genotypic and phenotypic ratio (B) It is used to determine purity and impurity of only recessive trait (C) In test cross F 1 hybrid is crossed with dominant parent (D) It is a type of back cross (1) A, B and C (2) Only A (3) A and D (4) A, B, C and D 114. A female is heterozygous for two autosomal gene M and N and homozygous for r gene, then what will be proportion of gamete having all dominant allele :(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/16 (4) 0
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115. Punnett square was developed by ? (1) British Zoologist, Reginald C. Punnett (2) German Botanist, Reginald C. Punnett (3) Stanford Geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett (4) British Geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett TT × tt 116. Parent
Choose the correct option regarding F1 (1) All offsprings are similar to both parents genotypically (2) All offsprings are similar to both parent phenotypically (3) All offsprings are similar to either parent genotypically (4) All offspring are not similar to either parent genotypically In a plant species, flower colour yellow dominant over white and fruit shape round is dominant over elongated. Crossing was performed between two pure lines one having yellow flower and round fruit and another with white flower and elongated fruit. About 20 plants survied in F1 progeny. All plant of F1 were allowed to selffertilize and about 960 plants survied in F 2. If the traits follow Mendelian inheritance the number of plant would have yellow flower and round fruit in F1 and F2 are respectively (1) 20, 960 (2) 20, 540 (3) 10, 180 (4) 10, 60 Which of the following is true for progenies of F4 generation of monohybrid cross :(1) 6.25% pure 93.75% impure (2) 6.25% impure 93.75% pure (3) 12.5% pure 87.5% hybrid (4) 12.5% hybrid 87.5% pure An organism have AaBbRrTt genotype how many types of gametes can be produced ? (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 4 (4) 32 The Part of chain of haemoglobin of a person suffering from sickle cell anaemia is given. The blank circle represents.
117.
118.
119.
120.
Val
His
Leu
Thr
Pro
1
2
3
4
5
(1) same as 1 (3) same as 3
Glu 6
7
(2) same as 2 (4) same as 5
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Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 121. In garden pea a dihybrid cross was made. In F2 9/16 members where showing same phenotype the phenotype was. (1) Violet and terminal flower (2) Violet flower and green pod (3) Green and Round seed (4) Tall stem and white flower 122. In a diploid organism how many maximum different alleles of a gene are possible :(1) One (2) Two (3) Many (4) Variable in different chromosome 123. How many types of phenotypes would be produced in F1 generation in the following cross that obeys Mendels law of independent assortment AABBCC × aabbcc :(1) 1 (2) 64 (3) 27 (4) 8 124. How many kinds of gametes can be produced by an individual of genotype MmNneeAaBB.... (1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 4 (4) 8 125. Which of the following is not true with refrence to alleles ? (1) slightly different form of a gene (2) present on different locus of homologous chromosome (3) present on same locus of homologous chromosome (4) responsible for different trait of a character 126. Given below is the diagram of a monohybrid cross between round and wrinkled seeded pea plants. The round allele (R) is dominant over wrinkled allele (r). From the given diagram identify a, b, c, d & e :Appearance Genetic makeup
Round seed Wrinkled seed RR
rr
Gametes
a
b
F1 generation
C Round seeds × d e
Genetic makeup Gametes F2 generation
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R
r
R
RR : Rr : rr 1 : 2 : 1
r
(1) (2) (3) (4)
a a a a
= = = =
R, b = r, c = RR, d = rr, e = RR R, b = r, c = Rr, d = rr, e = RR r, b = R, c = rr, d = Rr, e = RR R, b = r, c = Rr, d = Rr, e = Rr
127. Mendel's principle of segregation means that gametes always receive :(1) One pair of alleles (2) One quarter of the genes (3) One of the paired alleles (4) Any pair of alleles 128. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :(a) Genotype is the external apperance of an organism (b) Individuals with similar phenotypes may not belong to same genotype (c) Phenotype is always influenced by environment (d) Phenocopy have same genotype (1) a, c & d are incorrect (2) a, b are incorrect (3) c & d are correct (4) a & b are correct 129. Why was Mendel successful in his experiments performed on pea plant ? (1) He selected pure breeding varieties of Pisum sativum (2) He took only those traits for his studies which showed linkage (3) Characters chosen by him were not distinctive constrasting traits. (4) He studied the inheritance of a character for only one generation 130. Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well as in heterozygous condition? (1) Axial flower position (2) Constricted pod shape (3) Wrinkled seed shape (4) Green seed colour 131. Which of the following type of gamete will not be produced normally by genotype AaBbCc ? (1) AbC (2) ABc (3) aBC (4) aBb
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Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 132. Which is the true :(1) Test cross is a type of back cross (2) Homologous chromosome participate in independent assortment (3) Test cross produces only dominant offspring (4) Alleles are located on non homologous chromosome 133. Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865, but it remained unrecognised till 1900 due to several reasons. Which of the following may not be a probable reason for hiddeness of his work ? (1) His contemporaries did not accept factors as discrete unit of heredity. (2) Mathematical approach to explain inheritance was totally new. (3) Mendel could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors. (4) He studied only seven characters of garden pea. 134. In a certain plant red flower is dominant over white colour flower. When homozygous (RR) Plant is cross with white flower plant 200 offsprings are obtained. Then find out number of red flower offsprings. (1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 50 (4) 100 135. Multiple alleles :(1) Can also be detected in an organism. (2) Are the mutant forms of the same genes. (3)Occupy same locus on non-homologous chromosomes (4) Shows many phenotypes which can be calculated by (2n + 1) formula 136. If 64 offsprings are produced by the crossing of heterozygous red with homozygous red flowered plant, then what will be the number of white flowered plant in these offsprings? (1) 64 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 0 137. A pure tall pea plant is crossed with pure dwarf pea plant. Their Progeny is self pollinated. The ratio of true breeding tall plants to true breeding dwarf plants will be:– (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 0
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138. Which one of the following characters choosen by Mendel can express in heterozygous condition ? (1) Green seed colour (2) Constricted pod shape (3) Terminal flower position (4) Green pod colour 139. Phenocopies have :– (1) Different genotypes, but similar appearance (2) Different appearance, but similar genotype (3) Different genotypes & different appearance (4) (2) & (3) both can possible 140. The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross, when round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds and yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y) seeds.
RY RY F Ry G rY H ry I
Ry J K L M
rY N O P Q
ry R S T U
Find out the odd one – (1) G (2) K (3) H (4) L 141. A self fertilizing trihybrid plant forms – (1) 4 different gametes & 16 total zygotic combinations. (2) 8 different gametes & 16 total zygotic combinations. (3) 8 different gametes & 32 total zygotic combinations (4) 8 different gametes & 64 total zygotic combinations. 142. Which statement is not correct? (a) Male individual is hemizygous for autosomal characters. (b) 7 Mendelian characters genes are located on chromosome number 1st, 4th, 5th and 7th. (c) In pea plant wrinkled seeds are obtained due to deficiency of starch branching enzyme (d) In pea plant gene of plant height & pod colour is present on chromosome-1st. (1) b, c (2) a, d (3) a, c (4) a, b, c, d 143. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the source of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as– (1) Reserve cross (2) Test cross (3) Reciprocal cross (4) Back cross
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Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 144. Albinism is known to be due to autosomal recessive mutation. The first child of a couple with normal pigmentation is an albino. What is the possibility that their second child will be normal? (1) 100% (2) 75% (3) 50% (4) 25% 145. Which one of the following is not applicable to SS RNA ? (1) Sugar with five carbon (2) Hetrocyclic nitrogen base (3) Chargaff's rule (4) Phosphodiester bond 146. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest :(1) N base, gene, nucleotides, chromosome (2) Chromosome, gene, N base, nucleotides (3) gene, chromosome, nucleotides, N. base (4) Chromosomes, gene, nucleotides, N base 147. How many types of pyrimidines are present in a DNA? (1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Four 148. In salamandra DNA, which is double stranded, 12% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to the present in the DNA are :(1) G 6%, A 19%, T 19% (2) G 12%, A 36%, T 36% (3) G 12%, A 38%, T 38% (4) G 24%, A 34%, T 34% 149. Which linkage (bond) is not found in DNA ? (1) N-glycosidic linkage (2) Phosphodiester linkage (3) Peptide linkage (4) Phosphoester linkage 150. Identify the following molecule shown below with their nature and occurance from the given table. O
HO–P–OCH2
O
151. A DNA molecule contain 20,000 base pairs. How many nucleotides would be present in it? (1) 2000 (2) 10,000 (3) 40,000 (4) 20,000 152. If a B-DNA molecule is composed of 4800 bp, how many helical turns are present :(1) 10 (2) 380 (3) 480 (4) 4,800 HOCH2
Molecule
Nature
154.
155.
156.
157.
158. Occurance
(1) Uracil
Nucleotide
(2) Uridine
Nucleoside Found in both RNA and DNA
(3) Uridylic acid Nucleotide (4) Uridine
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Found in RNA
Found in RNA
Nucleoside Found in t-RNA
given structure represents :OH
Uracil
OH
'X'
153.
OH
OH
O
OH
Category Component (x) (1) Nucleotide Adenine (2) Nucleoside Uracil (3) Cholesterol Guanine (4) Amino acid NH2 Find out correct statement regarding nucleotide structure :(1) removal of the 5'-phosphate group from guanylic acid yields guanine (2) removal of 5'-phosphate group from adenylic acid yields adenine (3) removal of 5'-phosphate group from deoxy thymidylic acid yields uracil (4) removal of the 5'-phosphate group from cytidylic acid yields cytidine. If a DNA molecule contain 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is :(1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 60 (4) 480 On hydrolysis of a nucleoside would not yield (1) Purine (2) Pyrimidine (3) Pentose sugar (4) Phosphate One strand of ds DNA is mutated, changing all thymine to uracil. After one round of replication of the mutated DNA strand, the melting temperature of the resulting DNA will :(1) be higher (2) be lower (3) remain the same (4) insufficient data Which of the following feature generates approximately uniform distance between the two strand of DNA :(1) One purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine (2) One purine always comes opposite to a purine (3) One pyrimidine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine (4) Presence of pentose sugar
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Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 159. Methylated uracil attached with first carbon of pentose sugar with the help of which position of nitrogen? (2) 5th (3) 9th (4) 7th (1) 1st 160. Which of the DNA molecule will separated in two strand at lowest temperature ? (1) 5' – A A T G C T G C–3' 3' – T T A C G A C G–5' (2) 5' – A A T A A G T C–3' 3' – T T A T T C A G–5' (3) 5' – G T C T A C A A–3' 3' – C A G A T G T T–5' (4) 5' – A G C T T C C A–3' 3' – T C G A A G G T–5' 161. The molecule represented is ?
HOH2C
O
H
Uracil H
OH OH (1) Uridine and it is a pyrimidine (2) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleoside (3) Uridine and it is a nucleoside (4) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleotide AG ratio is 0.74, 162. In one strand of ds DNA the CT the same ratio in the complementary strand is :(1) 1.35 (2) 0.74 (3) 1 (4) 1.88 163. Consider the following structure of ds DNA and identify I, II, III and IV :5'
3' I
III
II
IV
=
3'
5' I
II
III
IV
(1) Sugar
Phospho ester bond
Adenine
H bond
(2) Guanine
Sugar
Phosphate
Adenine
(3) Sugar
Guanine
N-glycosidic H bond bond
(4) Sugar
Thymine
N-glycosidic H bond bond
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164. Consider the following structure of B-DNA and choose the correct statement with respect to K, L, M and N :-
M
5'
L
3'
= N
3'
5' K (1) The component of "M" is sugar and phosphate which forms steps of ds DNA (2) The "N" is helix length, which is 0.34 nm in length (3) The component of "L" is N bases which is never be a 5 methyl uracil (4) The "K" is the diameter of DNA which is remain almost constant throuout the DNA 165. A variety of pea plant with round, yellow seeds and violet flower (RRYYCC) was cross with a plant having wrinkled green seeds and white flower (rryycc). The frequency of plants with genotype RrYyCc in the F2 generation would be:-
1 8 27 9 (2) (3) (4) 2 64 64 64 166. When red flowered plants of snapdragon are crossed with pink flowered plants the progenies are obtained in which ratio ? (1) 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white (2) 1 red : 1 white (3) 1 red : 1 pink (4) All pink 167. Albinism is determined by a recessive gene in human. The presence of albinism in 50% children born to a couple proves that :(1) Both parents are homozygous normal (2) Father is homozygous normal and mother is albino (3) Both parents are homozygous albino (4) Father is carrier and mother is albino. 168. Which of the following trait of pea plant can express itself only in homozygous state? (1) Tall plant (2) White flower (1)
(3) Yellow seed
(4) Green pod
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Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/06-08-2017 169. Red and tall hybrid plant, when crossed with recessive white-dwarf plant (RrTt × rrtt). What will be ratio of respective four combinations red-tall, red-dwarf, white-tall and white-dwarf plants in F1 - generation :– (1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 15 : 1 : 0 : 0 (3) 9 : 3 : 4 : 0 (4) 4 : 4 : 4 : 4
175. In a couple, blood group of husband is 'AB' and that of wife is 'O'. What is the probability that their child will be having blood group 'O'?
170. Which of the following represent gamete ?
176. In the Mendelian characters, flower position and pod colour in garden pea are located on chromosome numbers----------and----------respectively.
(1) TtRG
(2) TRrG
(3) TRRG
(4) TRG
171. A F1-hybrid is crossed with either of parent is known as :– (1) Back cross
(2) 100%
(3) 25%
(4) 0%
(1) 4,1
(2) 4, 5
(3) 5, 7
(4) 1,5
(2) Test cross
(3) Out cross (4) Reciprocal cross 172. In a cross AABBCCDDEE × aabbccddee what will be in following ? (I) How many different gametes can be formed in F1-generation ? (II) How many different genotype are expected in F2 ? (1) 72, 229
(2) 92, 523
(3) 62, 563
(4) 32, 243
173. In Ist experiment, a cross was made between two plants A and B, in which A plant was gone through emasculation. Phenotypic result of F2 generation was 3 : 1. In 2nd experiment B plant was gone through emasculation. Result of 2nd experiment should be (with respect to Mendelian traits) :(1) Same phenotypic ratio 3 : 1 (2) Changed phenotypic ratio 1 : 1 (3) Changed phenotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 (4) Changed genotypic ratio 3 : 1 174. According to the concept of dominance, the following statements are given below. Read the statements carefully & choose the incorrect statement :(1) Wild allele is a fully functional allele, that form RNA, but no enzymes (2) The mutant allele, generally produces a faulty product or no product at all (3) The modified functional allele can produce the original phenotype (4) The modified or mutated non-functional allele behaves as recessive allele
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(1) 50%
177. Sahiwal cow in
I
was developed by
II .
(1) I-Punjab, II-Natural selection & domestication (2) I-Haryana, II-Natural selection and artificial selection (3) I-Haryana, II-Artificial selection & domestication (4) I-Punjab, II-Artificial selection and domestication 178. Multiple alleles can be found only when : (1) Population studies are made (2) Individual study is made (3) Mutation is absent (4) Dominance is present 179. What phenotypic ratio is obtained by selfing of a trihybrid, in which two gene pairs are completely dominant and one gene pair is incompletely dominant :(1) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 1 : 3 : 3 (3) 18 : 6 : 6 : 2 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) 18 : 6 : 6 : 2 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 1 180. In mirabilis jalapa a red flowered plant crossed with a white flowered plant. It produce total 120 offsprings. What is true for this cross :– (1) 120 red (2) 90 red : 30 white (3) 90 uniformly coloured: 30 white (4) 120 pink
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Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Common Test/06-08-2017 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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