solved questions paper - NEOIAS

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UPSC PRELIMS 2017

SOLVED QUESTIONS PAPER 1.

The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to (a) Define the Jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments. (b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India. (c) Impose censorship on national press. (d) Improve the relationship between the Government of Indian and the Indian States. Answer (d) Explanation A three -member committee headed by Harcourt Butler, appointed on December 16, 1927 to examine the relations between the native states and the paramount power, and to improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States It clearly stated that “paramountcy must remain paramount”. The committee fully endorsed that the viceroy, should remain the Crown agent in dealing with the native states.

2.

The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to (a) Developing solar power production in our country. (b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country. (c) Exporting our food products to other countries (d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country Answer (a) Explanation India in September,2016 lost the appeal it had filed against a World Trade Organisation (WTO) panel ruling that the country's power purchase agreements with solar firms and domestic content requirements (DCR) were "inconsistent" with international norms. The US had initiated this dispute in February 2013 because it considered that India's domestic content requirements were inconsistent with WTO rules that prohibit discrimination against imported products. Under the solar mission, solar power developers are mandated to use Indian-manufactured cells and modules rather than US or other imported solar technology that the US considered a breach of international trade rules.

3.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (d) Explanation Nuclear Security Summit Nuclear Security Summit is a biennial conference series initiated in 2010 by the Barack Obama administration. By focusing high-level attention on the threat of nuclear terrorism, the Nuclear Security Summits are designed to energize, enhance, empower, and elevate the many existing multilateral and cooperative institutions and structures aimed at securing nuclear materials and preventing nuclear smuggling. The first summit was held in Washington, D.C., United States, on 2010. The second summit was held in Seoul, South Korea, in 2012. The third summit was held in The Hague, Netherlands, on

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2014. The fourth summit was held in Washington, D.C. on March 31–April 1, 2016. The Summit Participants have identified the United Nations as one of five key institutions that will sustain many of the Summit's commitments. But the Nuclear Security Summit is not held under the aegis of the United Nations. International Panel on Fissile Materials The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) was founded in 2006 and is an independent group of arms-control and nonproliferation experts from both nuclear weapon and nonnuclear weapon states. The mission of the IPFM is to analyse the technical basis for practical and achievable policy initiatives to secure, consolidate, and reduce stockpiles of highly enriched uranium and plutonium. These fissile materials are the key ingredients in nuclear weapons, and their control is critical to nuclear weapons disarmament, to halting the proliferation of nuclear weapons, and to ensuring that terrorists do not acquire nuclear weapons. Both military and civilian stocks of fissile materials have to be addressed. Its members include nuclear experts from seventeen countries: Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Iran, Japan, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan, South Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States. This group of countries includes seven nuclear-weapon states and ten non-weapon states. IPFM research and reports are shared with international organizations, national governments and nongovernmental groups. It conducts full panel meetings twice a year at capitals around the world. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency. 4.

Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (a) Resident Indian citizens only (b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only (c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments (d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 Answer (c) Explanation The National Pension System (NPS) was launched on 1st January, 2004 with the objective of providing retirement income to all the citizens. NPS aims to institute pension reforms and to inculcate the habit of saving for retirement amongst the citizens. Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits of the Central Government (except armed forces). Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), the regulatory body for NPS, finalised the architecture and appointed NSDL as Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) and other entities for National Pension System. Subsequently, various State Governments adopted this architecture and implemented NPS with effect from different dates. With effect from 1st May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganised sector workers on voluntary basis. WHO CAN JOIN Any citizen of India, whether resident or non-resident, subject to the following conditions: • Individuals who are aged between 18 – 60 years as on the date of submission of his/her application to the POP/ POP-SP. The citizens can join NPS either as individuals or as an employee-employer group(s) (corporates) subject to submission of all required information and Know your customer (KYC) documentation. After attaining 60 years of age, you will not be permitted to make further contributions to the NPS accounts.

5.

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.


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2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (b) Explanation First statement is wrong. The Tista is the largest river of North Bengal. The Teesta River originates in the Himalayas in North Sikkim, from the Cholamu lake where it is hardly a stream, and flows through the Indian States of Sikkim and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh, where it flows into the Brahmaputra. The Brahmaputra has its origin in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near the Mansarovar lake. Second statement is correct. Teesta’s major tributary is the Rangeet which originates from the Rathong Glacier, meets it at the border between Sikkim and West Bengal. Third statement is wrong. Teesta is a tributary of Brahmaputra and it does not flow in to Bay of Bengal. Teesta joins the Brahmaputra near Rangpur town in Bangladesh. Reference: NEO IAS Material on Drainage System and Website of WRIS (Water Resource Information System of India) 6.

Consider the following statements: 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmitted dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (c) Explanation Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus that was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys through a network that monitored yellow fever. Zika virus is primarily transmitted to people through the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti in tropical regions. Aedes mosquitoes usually bite during the day, peaking during early morning and late afternoon/evening. This is the same mosquito that transmits dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever. Sexual transmission of Zika virus is also possible. The symptoms of Zika are similar to other arbovirus infections such as dengue, and include fever, skin rashes, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise, and headache. Zika virus disease is usually mild and requires no specific treatment. There is currently no vaccine available.

7.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of India Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (a) Explanation Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 1986 for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BIS has been providing traceability and tangibility benefits to the national economy in a number of ways - providing safe reliable quality goods; minimizing health hazards to consumers;


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promoting exports and imports substitute; control over proliferation of varieties etc. through standardization, certification and testing. A certification from the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for all types of automotive tyres and tubes from May 2010. As per the directive of the BIS, all types of tyres and tubes for two-wheelers, three-wheelers, passenger cars and commercial vehicles would now need BIS marking to be sold in the city. The certification would help check quality of tyres and tubes in the market, particularly those being imported from other countries, and ensure consumer safety. AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, an agency of the Government of India. The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937 (and ammended in 1986). The present AGMARK standards cover quality guidelines for 205 different commodities spanning a variety of Pulses, Cereals, Essential Oils, Vegetable Oils, Fruits & Vegetables, and semiprocessed products like Vermicelli. The term agmark was coined by joining the words 'Ag' to mean agriculture and 'mark' for a certification mark. This term was introduced originally in the bill presented in the parliament of India for the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act. 8.

What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme? 1. It is an pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (c) Explanation National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. The NAM Portal provides a single window service for all APMC related information and services. This includes commodity arrivals & prices, buy & sell trade offers, provision to respond to trade offers, among other services. While material flow (agriculture produce) continue to happen through mandis, an online market reduces transaction costs and information asymmetry. Agriculture marketing is administered by the States as per their agri-marketing regulations, under which, the State is divided into several market areas, each of which is administered by a separate Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee (APMC) which imposes its own marketing regulation (including fees). This fragmentation of markets, even within the State, hinders free flow of agri commodities from one market area to another and multiple handling of agri-produce and multiple levels of mandi charges ends up escalating the prices for the consumers without commensurate benefit to the farmer. NAM addresses these challenges by creating a unified market through online trading platform, both, at State and National level and promotes uniformity, streamlining of procedures across the integrated markets, removes information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promotes real time price discovery, based on actual demand and supply, promotes transparency in auction process, and access to a nationwide market for the farmer, with prices commensurate with quality of his produce and online payment and availability of better quality produce and at more reasonable prices to the consumer.


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9.

With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, Consider the following statements: 1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (c) Explanation National Intellectual Property Rights Policy will lay the future roadmap for intellectual property in India. The Policy recognises the abundance of creative and innovative energies that flow in India, and the need to tap into and channelise these energies towards a better and brighter future for all. The National IPR Policy is a vision document that aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. It sets in place an institutional mechanism for implementation, monitoring and review. It aims to incorporate and adapt global best practices to the Indian scenario. This policy shall weave in the strengths of the Government, research and development organizations, educational institutions, corporate entities including MSMEs, start-ups and other stakeholders in the creation of an innovationconducive environment, which stimulates creativity and innovation across sectors, as also facilitates a stable, transparent and service-oriented IPR administration in the country. The Policy recognizes that India has a well-established TRIPS-compliant legislative, administrative and judicial framework to safeguard IPRs, which meets its international obligations while utilizing the flexibilities provided in the international regime to address its developmental concerns. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement. Objectives: The Policy lays down the following seven objectives: a. IPR Awareness: Outreach and Promotion - To create public awareness about the economic, social and cultural benefits of IPRs among all sections of society. b. Generation of IPRs - To stimulate the generation of IPRs. c. Legal and Legislative Framework - To have strong and effective IPR laws, which balance the interests of rights owners with larger public interest. d. Administration and Management - To modernize and strengthen service-oriented IPR administration. e. Commercialization of IPRs - Get value for IPRs through commercialization. f. Enforcement and Adjudication - To strengthen the enforcement and adjudicatory mechanisms for combating IPR infringements. g. Human Capital Development - To strengthen and expand human resources, institutions and capacities for teaching, training, research and skill building in IPRs. These objectives are sought to be achieved through detailed action points. The action by different Ministries/ Departments shall be monitored by DIPP which shall be the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India.

10. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d) Explanation WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972 To protect the threatened species, India has created the Wildlife protection Act, 1972. This includes lists of plants and animals categorized according to the threat to their survival. In 1972, the Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) was enacted for the purpose of protection of wild animals, birds and plants. It was made to prevent hunting and also to control trade in wild life products. Wildlife laws divide species into schedules ranked from I to V. Section 9 of WPA prohibits hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedule 1, 2, 3 and 4. However the Chief Wild Life Warden may permit hunting of wild animals in certain cases. Schedule I members are the best protected, in theory, with severe punishments meted out to those who hunt them. SCHDULE 1 AND PART II OF SCHEDULE 2 Animals listed in schedule 1 and part II of schedule 2 have absolute protection-offences under these are presecribed the highest penalities. Indian Wild Ass is given legal protection under the Schedule 1 (Part I Mammals) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Gharial is given legal protection under the Schedule 1 (Part II Amphibians and Reptiles) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Wild Buffalo is given legal protection under the Schedule 1 (Part I Mammals) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. VERMIN: As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part 11 of Schedule H of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. As long as the notification is in force such wild animal shall be included in Schedule V of the law, depriving them of any protection under that law. DESCRIPTION OF ANIMALS LISTED IN SCHEDULE WPA, 1972. SCHEDULE I PART I MAMMALS Andaman Wild pig Hispid Hare Pygmy Hog Bharal Hog badgar Ratel Binturong Hoolock Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) Black Buck Indian Elephant Rusty spotted Cat Brow-antlered Deer or Indian Lion Serow Thamin Himalayan Brown bear Indian Wild Ass Clawless Otter Capped Langur Indian Wolf Sloth Bear Caracal Kashmir Stag Slow Loris Catecean specials Leaf Monkey Small Travencore Flying Squirrel Cheetah Leopard or Panther Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) Chinese Pangolin Leopard Cat Snubfin Dolphin Chinkara or India Gazelle Lesser or Red Panda Spotted Linsang Clouded Leopard Lion-tailed Macaque Swamp Deer Crab-eating Macaque Loris Takin or Mishmi Takin Desert Cat Little Indian Porpoise Tibetan Antelope or Chiru Desert fox Lynx Tibetan Fox NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Dugong (Dugong dugon) Ermine Fishing Cat Four-horned antelope Gangetic dolphin Gaur or Indian bison Golden Cat Golden Langur Giant squirrel Himalayan Ibex Himalayan Tahr

Malabar Civet

Tibetan Gazelle

Malay or Sun Bear Marbled Cat Markhor Mouse Deer Musk Deer Nilgiri Lungur Nilgiri Tahr Nyan or Great Tibetan Sheep Pallas's Cat Pangolin

Tibetan Wild Ass Tiger (Panthera tigris) Urial or Shapu Wild Buffalo Wild Yak Tibetan Wolf Wroughton's free tailed bat Salim Ali's fruit bat

PART II AMPHIBIANS AND REPTILES Agra Monitor Lizard Audithia Turtle Barred, Oval, or Yellow Monitor Lizard Crocodiles (including the Estuarine or salt water crocodile) (Crocodilus porosus and Crocodilus palustris)

Indian Egg-eating Snake Indian Soft-shelled Turtle Kerala Forest Terrapin Large Bengal Monitor Lizard

Leathery Turtle Terrapin Logger Head Turtle Eastern Hill Terrapin Olive Back Logger Head Turtle Gharial Peacock-marked Soft-shelled Turtle Ganges Soft-shelled Turtle Pythons Golden Gecko Sail terrapin Green Sea Turtle Spotted black Terrapin Hawksbill Turtle Water Lizard Reference: NEO IAS material on Fauna/ Species – Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 -Schedule List of animals in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 11. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (d) Explanation There is no provision in the Constitution for direct enforcement of any of the Fundamental Duties nor for any sanction to prevent their violation. All the Fundamental Duties under Article 51 A are ‘non-justiciable’. As regards enforceability of these duties, it has been held that these duties being duties of individual citizens cannot be enforced through mandamus, as they cast no public duties. The government cannot take legal action against someone if any citizen fails to perform any one of these duties as they are not enforceable in any court of law. However, the fundamental duties may be enforceable by law if the Parliament provides provisions for that. For instance, according to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act 1971, it is a punishable offence to show disrespect to the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem. Thus, both statements are wrong because it is neither enforceable through court of law nor laid down any legal sanction or legal recognition.


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12. Consider the following pairs: 1. Radhakanta Deb – First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (b) Explanation THE BRITISH INDIAN ASSOCIATION The British Indian Association was established in October 1851. The President of the first committee of this organization was Raja Radhakanta Deb, while Debendranath Tagore was its secretary. The newspaper of this society was “Hindu patriot” which adopted a strongly critical political tone. It was formed by the amalgamation of the Landholders’ Society and the Bengal British India Society. MADRAS MAHAJANA SABHA The first organisation in the Madras Presidency to agitate for the rights of Indians was the Madras Native Association which was established by publicist Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1852. This organisation did not survive for long and was eventually disbanded. In May 1884., M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha. INDIAN ASSOCIATION The Indian National Association also known as Indian Association was the first avowed nationalist organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876.The objectives of this Association were "promoting by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people". 13. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (a) Liberty of thought (b) Economic Liberty (c) Liberty of expression (d) Liberty of belief Answer (b) Explanation The Preamble embodies the fundamental values and the philosophy on which the constitution is based. The Preamble contains in a nutshell the ideals and aspirations of the people. The Preamble provides for certain minimal rights as liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. These are guaranteed against all the authorities of the State by Part III of the Constitution. Article 19 guarantees protection of rights of freedom of speech, expression etc. Articles 25-28 embody right to freedom of religion including that of belief, faith, and worship. In this positive connotation, liberty would mean freedom of the individual to do what he likes. Thus, the Preamble to the Constitution embody liberty of thought, expression, belief ,faith and worship, not economic liberty. Economic justice is envisaged in Preamble, not economic liberty. 14. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI), consider the following statements: 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


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Answer (c) Explanation Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign. QCI is registered as a non-profit society with its own Memorandum of Association. QCI is governed by a Council of 38 members with equal representations of government, industry and consumers. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on recommendation of the industry to the government. 15. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (a) Explanation The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to further financial inclusion by (a) provision of savings vehicles, and (ii) supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations. 16. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD), consider the following statements: 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2000 on the theme ‘Emerging urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’. 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (d) Explanation APMCHUD is an intergovernmental mechanism for collaboration and cooperation in the field of housing and development among Asia Pacific countries. It was established under the aegis and support of UN-Habitat. It is consultative mechanism on the promotion of sustainable development of housing and urban development in Asia-Pacific region. The 1st APMCHUD was held in New Delhi, India from 13th-16th December, 2006 on the theme of ‘A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020’. The Conference of APMCHUD is a biennial event. This event is hosted by one of the member countries whose offer is consented to by the members in the previous conference of the APMCHUD. The 2nd APMCHUD was held in Tehran, Islamic Republic of Iran, from 12th – 14th May, 2008 on the theme of ‘Sustainable Urban Development: Associating Growth with Equity and Identity’. The 3rd APMCHUD was held in Solo, Republic of Indonesia. The 6th Asia Pacific Conference on Housing and Urban Development was held in New Delhi during 14th – 16th December, 2016. The main theme of the conference is ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’. 17. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women (b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision (d) a band of dedicated party workers. Answer (a) Explanation Democracy is a form of government in which the sovereign power lies with the people. They take part in the governance of the country through their elected representatives. It is through representatives, the will of the people is expressed. So, the intelligence and the character of ordinary men and women should be efficiently used in order to express the real aspirations of the people. 18. Which of the following is a most likely consequences of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’? (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. (b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades. (c) FDI inflows will drastically increase. (d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective. Answer (a) Explanation The ongoing push by the Reserve Bank to revolutionise banking through the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) will leave mobile wallets redundant, as mobile banking has jumped over threefold. If the UPI adoption continues mobile wallets like SBI's Buddy, ICICI Bank's Pockets, HDFC Bank's Chillr and Paytm will be redundant. The RBI wants to cut down on cash dependence and the UPI has been brought in to do just that. It will reduce the effort, time and cost incurred on simple transactions, below Rs 1 lakh. Through UPI, two or three bank accounts can be linked and therefore any payment/withdrawal can then be done by just sending a message on this app. UPI does not require a specific bank account unlike existing players which offer the product to only those who have an account with them, thus significantly increasing the pool of customers UPI could tap into, compared to banks which have a limited universe of customers. 19. The terms ‘Event Horizons’ ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of (a) Observation and understanding of the Universe (b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses (c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth (d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth Answer (a) Explanation Event horizon, boundary marking the limits of a black hole. At the event horizon, the escape velocity is equal to the speed of light. Since general relativity states that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light, nothing inside the event horizon can ever cross the boundary and escape beyond it, including light. Thus, nothing that enters a black hole can get out or can be observed from outside the event horizon. In the centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a one-dimensional point which contains a huge mass in an infinitely small space, where density and gravity become infinite and space-time curves infinitely, and where the laws of physics as we know them cease to operate. Current theory suggests that, as an object falls into a black hole and approaches the singularity at the centre, it will become stretched out or “spaghettified” due to the increasing differential in gravitational attraction on different parts of it, before presumably losing dimensionality completely and disappearing irrevocably into the singularity. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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In string theory, there are no elementary particles (like electrons or quarks), but pieces of vibrating strings. Each vibration mode corresponds to a different particle and determines its charge and its mass. In the current understanding of the theory, those strings are not "made of" anything: they are the fundamental constituent of matter. The consequences of replacing point-like particles by vibrating microscopic strings are enormous. The only consistent framework to describe those strings implies a 10- or even conceivably an 11-dimension world in which 6 or 7 dimensions are curled up. Those extra dimensions are the ones which determine the properties of the world we live in. The larger dimensions are what we perceive as the ordinary space and time. The theories and discoveries of thousands of physicists since the 1930s have resulted in a remarkable insight into the fundamental structure of matter: everything in the universe is found to be made from a few basic building blocks called fundamental particles, governed by four fundamental forces. Our best understanding of how these particles and three of the forces are related to each other is encapsulated in the Standard Model of particle physics. Developed in the early 1970s, it has successfully explained almost all experimental results and precisely predicted a wide variety of phenomena. Reference http://www.physicsoftheuniverse.com/topics_blackholes_singularities.html https://imagine.gsfc.nasa.gov/science/questions/superstring.html https://www.britannica.com/topic/event-horizon-black-hole https://home.cern/about/physics/standard-model 20. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for diseases resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (d) Explanation Sequencing DNA means determining the order of the four chemical building blocks - called "bases" - that make up the DNA molecule. Applications of genome sequencing • Agriculture DNA sequencing has played vital role in the field of agriculture. It can be used to identify genetic markers for diseases resistance, pest resistant, herbicide resistant and drought tolerance in various crop plants. DNA sequencing helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. It can also be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. These plants can also fulfill the need of food in poor countries. Similarly, it has been useful in the production of livestock with improved quality of meat and milk. 21. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that (a) the executive and legislature work independently. (b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient. (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature. (d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election. Answer (c) Explanation In a Parliamentary form of Government, real executive power lies with the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister which is responsible to the legislature. In other words, they NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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hold office only if the majority in Lok Sabha supports them and must resign if they loose confidence. The Parliamentary form of Government is more suitable to India, since the members of Council of Ministers are drawn from the legislature, which is a miniature nation in the assembly. It ensures better representation for almost all sections of the heterogeneous population. 22. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? (a) Rights are correlative with Duties (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties. (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen. (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State. Answer (a) Explanation Every right has a corresponding duty. Therefore, there can be no duty unless there is someone to whom it is due. There can be no right without a corresponding duty or a duty without a corresponding right. Likewise, every right is right against some person or persons upon whom a correlative duty is imposed. Every right or duty involves a legal obligation by which two or more persons are bound together. Under Indian Constitution, Part III deals with the Fundamental Rights which are certain basic human rights to its people. Our Constitution as originally enacted did not expressly lay down any fundamental duties to be performed by citizens. It was only in 1976 that a specific Chapter IV-A was incorporated in the Constitution by a constitutional amendment and Article 51-A was enacted. The idea behind the incorporation of the Fundamental Duties was to emphasize the obligation of the citizen in exchange of Fundamental Rights enjoyed by them. 23. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (a) The Preamble (b) The Fundamental Rights (c) The Directive principles of State Policy (d) The Fundamental Duties Answer (a) Explanation The Preamble embodies the fundamental values and the philosophy on which the constitution is based. The Preamble contains in a nutshell the ideals and aspirations of the people. It states the objects which the constitution seeks to establish and promote and also aids the legal interpretation of the constitution. It is the key to open the minds of the framers of the Constitution. Where the words were found to be vague or their meaning are unclear, help of the Preamble could be taken to understand the intention of the framers and find out whether a particular word was used in a wide or narrow context. It is because of this reason, preamble is known as the ‘Soul of the Indian Constitution’. 24. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 Answer (b) Explanation States – Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Assam, Nagaland


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25. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary question Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (d) Explanation In India, under the parliamentary form of government, executive is responsible to the Parliament for its policy decisions. Parliament exercises control over executive through various provisions of the Indian Constitution. The Members of parliament can ask questions and supplementary questions to the ministers on policy matters. Adjournment motion helps to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance in which the members of the Parliament can discuss flaws and lapses of administrative action. Question hour is the first hour of every sitting of both Houses of Parliament which is allotted to asking and answering questions on matters concerning the Government of India and expose some administrative abuse or excess. Thus, during this hour, the Government is put on trial over its actions. Thus, adjournment motion, question hour, supplementary question, censure motion, noconfidence motion etc. are certain devices or tools of parliamentary proceedings by which accountability and transparency of ministers are ensured and thereby reduce administrative arbitrariness. 26. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (d) Explanation Every Member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member and bills presented by them are known as private member's bills. It enables the Government to gauge the feelings of the House with regard to proposals which are still indefinite or may be ahead of public opinion. Private member bills have a very low chance of being passed in parliament. The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014, which is a private bill, has been unanimously passed by the Rajya Sabha in April 2016. It is the first private member's bill to get the upper house's approval in the past 45 years. The Transgender Bill, 2016 is introduced in Lok Sabha in August 2016 with slight changes and is still pending in Lok Sabha. Only 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence. The last Private Member's Bill passed by parliament was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, which became an act on August 9, 1970. 27. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Answer (c) Explanation Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. Iron was discovered in the post vedic period and Indus civilization was a Bronze age civilization. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. 28. ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. (b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. (c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. (d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development programme. Answer (d) Explanation Recognition of Prior Learning – RPL is a key element under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The scheme plans to impart skill based training to one crore people between 2016 – 2020 and RPL will account for 40 lakhs candidate whose prior experience and skills will be assessed and certified. Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) can help them get assessed and certified on their current competencies as per NSQF levels. RPL also shows them a path to bridge their current knowledge and skill levels to reach a competency level or go for higher skills for professional growth. So the answer is option (d). 29. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (b) Nallamala Forest (c) Nagarhole National park (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve Answer (a) Explanation Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve (STR) Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is a protected area and Tiger Reserve along the Western Ghats in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Largest among the four tiger reserves (Kalakad-Mundanthurai, Anamalai, Mudumalai and Sathyamangalam) in Tamil Nadu, STR is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats, serving as a genetic link to contiguous protected areas including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.


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Reference: NEO IAS Material on Protected Areas http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/to-support-conservation-oftiger/article7745365.ece 30. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (a) Privileges (b) Restraints (c) Competition (d) Ideology Answer (a) Explanation Privilege is a special right, advantage, or immunity granted or available only to a particular person or group. It is a right or advantage gained by birth, social position, effort, or concession, thus, not enjoyed by everyone. On the contrary, equality means the state of being equal, especially in status, rights, or opportunities. Thus, one of the implications of equality in society is the absence of privilege. 31. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation TRAFFIC TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade monitoring network, is a joint program of WWF and IUCN, established by the WWF & IUCN to respond to the growing threats posed by illegal wildlife trade and overexploitation. TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC's partner organizations, WWF and IUCN. It is the leading non-governmental organization working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. It was established in 1976 by the Species Survival Commission of IUCN, principally as a response to the entry into force during the previous year of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Traffic aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. TRAFFIC is an international network, consisting of TRAFFIC International, based in Cambridge, UK (headquarters) with offices on five continents, seven regional programmes in 25 countries and territories, with ongoing research and activities in several others. Since its founding, TRAFFIC has grown to become the world's largest wildlife trade monitoring programme, and a global expert on wildlife trade issues. TRAFFIC actively monitors and investigates wildlife trade and provides its information to a diverse audience world-wide, as a basis for effective conservation policies and programmes. It has a considerable international reputation for helping to identify and address conservation challenges linked to wildlife trade. TRAFFIC’s global network is research-driven, actionoriented, and committed to delivering innovative and practical solutions to wildlife trade issues based on the latest information. TRAFFIC has offices and personnel strategically deployed in key wildlife trading areas of the world. This provides TRAFFIC with the unique strength to be able to work on issues around wildlife trade in producing, trading and consumer countries. This non-governmental organization undertakes its activities in close collaboration with governments and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Reference: NEO IAS 2017 Prelims Current Affairs - TRAFFIC & CITES (TP2017 – 002) NEO IAS Material on International Environmental Organisations 32. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries (c) Right to work, education and public assistance (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers Answer (b) Explanation Article 43A says that the State shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments or other organizations engaged in any industry. It was added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. 33. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State. (c) Rights are claims of the Citizens against the State. (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many. Answer (c) Explanation Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. State originated to protect the rights of its people and it is the primary responsibility of the State to protect the rights and freedoms of its subjects. They are limitation upon the State and it is against the totalitarian or authoritarian rule. 34. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (a) World Economic Forum (b) UN Human Rights Council (c) UN Women (d) World Health Organization Answer (a) Explanation The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality. 35. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Answer (b) Explanation Smart India Hackathon 2017 is a pan-India 36-hour nonstop digital programming competition. All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), University Grants Commission (UGC), i4c, MyGov, NASSCOM, Rambhau Mhalgi Prabodhini and Persistent Systems have joined hands to organize this ambitious ‘Smart India Hackathon 2017’. Smart India Hackathon NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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2017 would be the first massive scale hackathon initiative in India. For the first time ever, 29 different government ministries and departments came together and posed 598 problem statements to 30 lakh technical students from India. Through Smart India Hackathon 2017, HRD ministry is keen on reaching out to all technology institutions in India and challenge students to offer innovative solutions to some of the daunting problems faced by our nation. Smart India Hackathon can also set an example for the world on how youth power can help find digital solutions to legacy problems within a matter of hours. 36. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? 1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct5 answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Answer (a) Explanation The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016, to provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee, for maintaining price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth. The Monetary Policy Committee would be entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level. As per the provisions of the RBI Act, out of the six Members of Monetary Policy Committee, three Members will be from the RBI and the other three Members of MPC will be appointed by the Central Government. The committee is headed by the Governor of the RBI. The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government shall hold office for a period of four years and there will not be eligible for reappointment. Decisions in MPC are taken based on voting with each member having a single vote and the Chairman having casting vote in case of tie. 37. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: 1. It is a song and dance performance 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance 3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only Answer (b) Explanation SANKIRTANA, RITUAL SINGING, DRUMMING AND DANCING OF MANIPUR:  It encompasses an array of arts performed to mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of the Vaishnava people of the Manipur plains.  Sankirtana practices centre on the temple, where performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through song and dance. 4. In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singer-dancers perform in a hall or domestic courtyard encircled by seated devotees. Cymbals are not the only musical instruments used in the performance  Sankirtana has two main social functions: it brings people together on festive occasions throughout the year, acting as a cohesive force within Manipur’s Vaishnava community; and it establishes and reinforces relationships between the individual and the community through life-cycle ceremonies.  Sankirtana works in harmony with the natural world, whose presence is acknowledged through its many rituals.


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38. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule? 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro Select the4 correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (c) Explanation The Ryotwari system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras. The other two systems were the Permanent Settlement of Bengal which was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 and the Mahalwari system which was introduced by Holt MacKenzie and Robert Merttins Bird. 39. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique? 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readly and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (c) Explanation First statement is correct. Bioremediation is a technique in which micro-organisms are utilized for the management of biological waste. Their metabolism is used for the removal of pollutants from the environment. Second statement is wrong. Bioremediation will not work for all. For example, bioremediation may not provide a feasible strategy at sites with high concentrations of chemicals that are toxic to most microorganisms. These chemicals include metals such as cadmium or lead, and salts such as sodium chloride. Third statement is correct. Genetic engineering has now become integrated with bioremediation since many microbes can be artificially designed which can consume the toxic waste and pollutants that are not usually taken in by normal microbes. The important aspects of using GEMs in bioremediation, such as development of novel strains with desirable properties through pathway construction and the modification of enzyme specificity and affinity are discussed in the paper prepared by the National Center for Biotechnology Information. Particular attention is given to the genetic engineering of bacteria using bacterial hemoglobin (VHb) for the treatment of aromatic organic compounds under hypoxic conditions. The application of VHb technology may advance treatment of contaminated sites, where oxygen availability limits the growth of aerobic bioremediating bacteria, as well as the functioning of oxygenases required for mineralization of many organic pollutants. Despite the many advantages of GEMs, there are still concerns that their introduction into polluted sites to enhance bioremediation may have adverse environmental effects, such as gene transfer. The extent of horizontal gene transfer from GEMs in the environment, compared to that of native organisms including benefits regarding bacterial bioremediation that may occur as a result of such transfer. Recent advances in tracking methods and containment strategies for GEMs, including several biological systems that have been developed to detect the fate of GEMs in the NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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environment. Critical research questions pertaining to the development and implementation of GEMs for enhanced bioremediation have been identified and posed for possible future research. Reference: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16923532 40. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provide for (a) the participation of workers in the management of industries. (b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes. (c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute. (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes Answer (d) Explanation The Trade Disputes Act, 1929. The main object of the Act was to make provisions for establishment of Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation with a view to investigate and settle trade disputes. The Act prohibited strikes or lock-outs without notice in public utility services; it also made any strike or lock-out illegal. 41. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in (a) Federalism (b) Democratic decentralization (c) Administrative delegation (d) Direct democracy Answer (b) Explanation The Local Self-government is an inevitable part of our democratic system. The local selfgovernment possesses political autonomy. The political ideal that exists in democratic decentralization is reflected in the local self-government. Democratic decentralization is a political ideal of the local self-government. Or in other words, the theoretical basis of local self-government is democratic decentralization. 42. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitation upon 1. legislative function 2. executive function Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (d) Explanation Part IV may be described as the active obligation of the State. These principles obligate the State to take positive action in certain directions in order to promote the welfare of the people. These principles give directions to the legislatures and the executive as regards the manner in which they should exercise their power. It is only directives and non-justiciable and cannot be enforced in a court of law. thus, it does not place any limitation upon legislative or executive action. 43. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS (c) EU (d) G20


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Answer (c) Explanation European Union digital single market strategy is made up of three policy areas or 'pillars' • Better access for consumers and business to online goods Helping to make the EU's digital world a seamless and level marketplace to buy and sell. • The right environment for digital networks and services Designing rules which match the pace of technology and support infrastructure development. • Economy and Society Ensuring that Europe's economy, industry and employment take full advantage of what digitalisation offers. 44.

At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at (a) Bhavngar (b) Bheemunipatnam (c) Chandipur (d) Nagapattinam Answer (c) Explanation Chandipur beach in Balasore district of Odisha is unique - the sea recedes massively (approximately five kilometres) during low tides and comes back with equal vengeance during high tides. It is one of those rare beaches in the world, where the sea disappears suddenly.

45. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements: 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide of any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Answer (b) Explanation The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016, designed to curb black money was passed by parliament in August 2016. An amendment of the 1988 Benami Transactions Act, the new law provides for up to seven years' imprisonment and fine for those indulging in such transactions, whereas the earlier law provided for up to three years of imprisonment or fine or both. The rules and all the provisions of the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, shall come into force on November 1, 2016. After coming into effect, the existing Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988, shall be renamed as the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions (PBPT) Act, 1988. The amendments aim to strengthen the Act in terms of legal and administrative procedure. The benami (without a name) property refers to property purchased by a person in the name of some other person. The person on whose name the property has been purchased is called the benamdar and the property so purchased is called the benami property. The person who finances the deal is the real owner. The PBPT Act prohibits recovery of the property held benami from benamdar by the real owner. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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As per the Act, properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the government, without payment of compensation. An appellate mechanism has been provided under the act, in the form of an adjudicating authority and appellate tribunal. According to the government, the four authorities who will conduct inquiries or investigations are the Initiating Officer, Approving Authority, Administrator and Adjudicating Authority. 46. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (c) Explanation First statement is correct. Pollination is essential to the survival of plants because it is part of their reproductive process. Pollination is the process of pollen being transferred from the male part of a flower called an anther to the female part of a flower called a stigma. Animals, birds, and insects that carry the pollen between flowers are called pollinators. Butterfly is a good pollinator. Second statement is wrong. The butterflies’ population doesn’t have impact on fungal infection of the cultivated plants. Third statement is correct Butterflies play a large part in food webs and food chains – at all stages of their lifecycle they can be a food item for other animals. When the flora or fauna on the lower part of a food web or food chain is impacted by climate change, the fauna on the higher end can also be impacted. In a food chain each subsequent level depends on the previous level, therefore, a disruption at the lowest level can cause problems that echo throughout the chain. Nearly two-thirds of all invertebrates can be connected back to the butterfly on the food chain. If animals cannot adapt to these changes by finding other food sources or other organisms to provide specific services (like pollination), they could be at risk for population decline – there is a reason that they call it the “Butterfly Effect.” 47. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (b) Explanation Algae Based Biofuels (ABB) Algae have the capacity to produce energy-rich oils, and a number of microalgal species have been found to naturally accumulate high oil levels in total dry biomass. First statement is wrong. There are sea based and land based systems. ABB technical concept considerations • Land based systems → Closed systems have a higher capital, technology, technical skill, research and maintenance requirement than open systems, and therefore the latter are generally preferable. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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→ Open systems have a high water loss due to evaporation, so a renewable water source that can be replenished is required. → Locally occurring algae species should be cultivated. → A renewable nutrient source is needed. → Co-production of food or feed strongly increases economic viability, allows small scale, near-term implementation, food supply and experience, and therefore has to be considered a strict requirement in the short term. • Sea based systems → Large potential in territorial waters of developing countries. → Can be labour intensive. This benefits developing countries in that more jobs are created, while this has a small economic impact due to lower wages. → Co-production of food or feed has the potential to increase economic viability and can build on existing experience. → Synergy with fish cultivation has high potential. Conclusions specific to developing countries • ABB production holds future promise for developing countries. → A new industry, generating jobs, GDP and energy independence. → Developing countries are often situated in regions which are geographically interesting for algae cultivation (favourable climatic conditions, cheap labour and underdeveloped land). • All ABB concepts require significant capital investment. → Access to this technology by the poor may be difficult. → Foreign investment could lead to revenues leaving the country. → Large-scale facilities are more economically viable, but are also more likely to have higher social and ecological impacts. • Various knowledge levels required: → Developing and engineering ABB technology requires a high level of expertise until construction is finished. → Innovation for higher productivity also requires some knowledge and/or experience. → Operation and maintenance, as well as processing, can be mostly done without specific educational requirements. This group will be the majority of the workforce. • Knowledge gaps exist for several critical factors: → Due to a lack of industrial scale experiments, there is insufficient knowledge to adequately judge the economic viability. → Productivity data is often extrapolated from small experiments, and not always presented clearly and consistently. → Overall analysis of energy balances, GHG balances and CO2 abatement potential are lacking. Reference: http://www.fao.org/3/a-ak333e.pdf 48. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrion among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only Answer (a) Explanation The key objectives of National Nutrition Mission (NNM) programmes are as under: • To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition; NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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• •

To improve maternal and child under-nutrition in 200 high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under-nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years; To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

49. Consider the following statements: 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers to form trade unions. 2. N.M Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation FIRST FACTORIES ACT 1881 First Factories Commission and Act: The first Factories Commission was appointed in Bombay in 1875 and the first Factories Act was passed in 1881. But this act proved to be an inadequate measure. Its provisions regarding protection of child labour only and absence of any provision for women labour caused great disappointment among the workers in general. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was a pioneer of the labour movement in India. He is remembered not only for ameliorating the working conditions of textile mill-hands in the 19th century but also for his courageous initiatives on caste and communal issues. 50. In the context of mitigating the impending ‘global warming’ due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (d) Explanation Capturing CO2 from the major stationary sources and its storage into deep geological formations is considered as a potential mitigation option for combacting climate change. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs are prime candidates for CO2 storage as they provide value addition proposition for recovery of enhanced oil and gas. CO2 can also be stored permanently in empty space of a depleted oil fields. Abandoned or uneconomic coal seams are other potential CO2 storage options. Coal contains fractures (cleats) that impart some permeability to the system. Coal permeability is one of the several determining factors in the selection of a storage site. Deep saline formations are believed to have by far the largest capacity for CO2 storage worldwide at a relatively little cost and are much more widespread than other options. Sedimentary rocks such as sandstone and limestone have many small spaces or pores that can be filled with water, trapped by an overlying layer of non-porous rock. 51. Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (d) Explanation The first statement is wrong. India has adopted the first-past-the-post electoral system. In this system, the candidate who gets votes more than all other candidates is declared as winner. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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The second statement is also incorrect. In Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s post to the opposition as per the convention. 52. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991? 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer (b) Explanation 1. Share of agriculture in GDP have decreased. So 1st statement is wrong. 2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. 53.

What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology? (a) Production of biolarvicides (b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics (c) Reproductive cloning of animals (d) Production of organisms free of diseases Answer (c) Explanation Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is a laboratory strategy for creating a viable embryo from a body cell and an egg cell. The technique consists of taking an enucleated oocyte (egg cell) and implanting a donor nucleus from a somatic (body) cell. It is used in both therapeutic and reproductive cloning.

54. Consider the following statements: 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country. 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (c) Explanation RuPay is a combination of two words – Rupee and Payment. RuPay Card is an Indian version of credit/debit card. It is very similar to international cards such as Visa/Master. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) initiated the launch of RuPay card in India. It was done with the intention of integration of payment systems in the country. It has also tied up with Discover Financial Services firm for promoting this. Lower transaction cost – International transactions lead to higher transaction costs. Such costs can be reduced by using RuPay card since processing will be done within the country. Also, transactions will be faster. Reduced processing fees – Processing fees for RuPay card compared with regular debit/credit cards will be considerably lower. Thus, NPCI helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country. 55. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometime seen in the news in the context of (a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System (d) Security of National Highways NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Answer (b) Explanation The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), which has been upgrading monitoring mechanism for the large cats, brought in field officials and technical staff of 11 tiger reserves (TRs) of the country to Baripada to introduce them to Monitoring System for Tiger-Intensive Protection and Ecological Status, known as M-STrIPES. The android-based monitoring software M-STrIPES will be used across all the TRs of the country. MSTrIPES - Monitoring system for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status The system consists of two components a) field based protocols for patrolling, law enforcement, recording wildlife crimes and ecological monitoring, and b) a customized software for storage, retrieval, analysis and reporting. Currently law enforcement and ecological monitoring are being done, but the information generated is ad hoc and rarely available in a format for informed decision making. The “MSTrIPES” addresses this void and is a tool for adaptive management. The system uses a holistic approach by integrating ecological insights obtained through the standardized tiger, prey, and habitat assessment protocols (Phase I) to guide protection and management. It enables managers to assess intensity and spatial coverage of patrols in a GIS based tool. The system performs statistical computations of occupancy, precision, sample size, and assesses trends over desired time and spatial scales for tigers, other carnivores, prey populations, human impacts, illegal activities, and law enforcement investments. MSTrIPES produces easily interpretable reports and maps that are useful for management and policy decisions. If implemented as designed, the system reduces the response time to detrimental events like poaching or habitat degradation and becomes a comprehensive tool to keep the pulse of a tiger reserve. Reference http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-information/mstripes.pdf http://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2017/feb/08/m-stripes-to-monitor-str-fromapril-1568257.html 56. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (a) Explanation Goods and Service Tax is a major economic reform in India after the 1991 economic liberalisation. GST, proposed to be rolled out from 1st July 2017, will have a four-tier structure with rates ranging from 5% to 28%. But regrettably, a large chunk of the economy, which includes real estate, electricity, alcohol and petroleum products, is out of GST. It brings benefits to all the stakeholders of industry, government and the consumer. It will lower the cost of goods and services, give a boost to the economy and make the products and services globally competitive. GST aims to make India a common market with common tax rates and procedures and remove the economic barriers thus paving the way for an integrated economy at the national level. By subsuming most of the Central and State taxes into a single tax and by allowing a set-off of prior-stage taxes for the transactions across the entire value chain, it would mitigate the ill effects of cascading, improve competitiveness and improve liquidity of the businesses. GST is a destination based tax. It follows a multi-stage collection mechanism. In this, tax is collected at every stage and the credit of tax paid at the previous stage is available as a set off at the next stage of transaction. This shifts the tax NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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incidence near to the consumer and benefits the industry through better cash flows and better working capital management. It will not drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India. It will not enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will not overtake China in the near future. 57. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and (a) European Union (b) Gulf Cooperation Council (c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization Answer (a) Explanation India is negotiating a Broad-based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (India-EU BTIA) with the European Union. The negotiation started in 2007 and sixteen rounds of negotiations have been held so far. However, there has been no agreement reached in IndiaEU BTIA so far. 58. Consider the following statements: 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) or WTO. 2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. 3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (a) Explanation Bureaucratic delays and “red tape” pose a burden for moving goods across borders for traders. Trade facilitation—the simplification, modernization and harmonization of export and import processes—has therefore emerged as an important issue for the world trading system. WTO members concluded negotiations at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference on the landmark Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which entered into force on 22 February 2017 following its ratification by two-thirds of the WTO membership. The TFA contains provisions for expediting the movement, release and clearance of goods, including goods in transit. It also sets out measures for effective cooperation between customs and other appropriate authorities on trade facilitation and customs compliance issues. It further contains provisions for technical assistance and capacity building in this area. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the World Trade Agreement (WTO) and the instrument of Acceptance for Trade Facilitation Agreement was handed over to WTO Director-General by India on April 22, 2016. 59. What is the importance of developing Chabahar port by India? (a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. (b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for Access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. (d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India. Answer (c) Explanation India signed a deal to develop the Chabahar port with Iran. Apart from the bilateral agreement between India and Iran, a trilateral transit and trade corridor deal was also signed by India, Iran and Afghanistan which would ensure easy movement of goods between the three countries, bypassing Pakistan. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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The Chabahar port is situated in South Eastern part of Iran, and on the northern coast of Gulf of Oman. It is surrounded by Afghanistan in the North, Pakistan in the North-East and India in the East. It is the only Iranian port with direct access to the ocean. The location of the Chabahar port is of strategic importance to India in linking trade routes from the Indian Ocean to Afghanistan, Central Asia and also to Europe; thereby avoiding a land route through Pakistan.

60. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (d) Explanation In India, section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the “IT Act”) gives the Central Government the power to appoint an agency of the government to be called the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team. In pursuance of the said provision the Central Government issued the Information Technology (The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team and Manner of Performing Functions and Duties) Rules, 2013 (the “CERT Rules”) which provide the location and manner of functioning of the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In). Rule 12 of the CERT Rules gives every person, company or organisation the option to report cyber security incidents to the CERT-In. It also places an obligation on them to mandatorily report the following kinds of incidents as early as possible: • Targeted scanning/probing of critical networks/systems; • Compromise of critical systems/information; • Unauthorized access of IT systems/data; • Defacement of website or intrusion into a website and unauthorized changes such as inserting malicious code, links to external websites, etc.; • Malicious code attacks such as spreading of virus/worm/Trojan/botnets/spyware; • Attacks on servers such as database, mail, and DNS and network devices such as routers; NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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• • • •

Identity theft, spoofing and phishing attacks; Denial of Service (DoS) and Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks; Attacks on critical infrastructure, SCADA systems and wireless networks; Attacks on applications such as e-governance, e-commerce, etc. The CERT Rules also impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely action. 61. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right (c) Constitutional Right (d) Legal Right Answer (c) Explanation Article 326 provides for universal adult franchises in which citizens who are not less than 18 years’ age or not otherwise disqualified by the Constitution or the laws made by Parliament are eligible to be registered voters and participate in elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies. Further, the right to vote also includes right to contest elections and right to subscribe the nomination of others. 62. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project? (a) To detect neutrinos (b) To detect gravitational waves (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system (d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems Answer (b) Explanation The Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (LISA) is a joint NASA-ESA project to develop and operate a space-based gravitational wave detector sensitive at frequencies between 0.03 mHz and 0.1 Hz. LISA detects gravitational-wave induced strains in space-time by measuring changes of the separation between fiducial masses in three spacecraft 5 million kilometers apart. Reference https://lisa.nasa.gov/ 63. What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? 1. To enable the famous foreign education institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contribution from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Answer (a) Explanation Vidyanjali - (School Volunteer Programme) is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education & Literacy to enhance community and private sector involvement in Government run elementary schools across the country under the overall aegis of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. Vidyanjali will also cover initiatives under the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and Public Private Partnership (PPP), with Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) Companies, private corporate and others. The programme will be implemented with children in elementary classes (Std. 1-8) of a government school.


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64. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities. (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. (c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. (d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Answer (b) Explanation Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is inspired by the vision of transformational change in rural development processes by leveraging knowledge institutions to help build the architecture of an Inclusive India. Their mission is conceptualized as a movement to enable processes that connect institutes of higher education with local communities to address the development challenges of rural India through participatory processes and appropriate technologies for accelerating sustainable growth. It also aims to create a virtuous cycle between the society and an inclusive university system by providing knowledge and practices for emerging professions and to upgrade the capabilities of both the public and the private sectors. So the answer is option (b). 65. Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Answer (d) Explanation The first statement is incorrect. It consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and such number of Election Commissioners as the President may deem it necessary subject to the law made by Parliament in this regard. So, it is a multi-member commission. It currently consists of Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Election Commission decides election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Article 324 vests in the Commission the powers of superintendence, direction and control of the elections to both Houses of Parliament and State Legislature. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognise political parties and allot symbols. Under Paragraph 15 of the Order, it can decide disputes among rival groups or sections of a recognised political party staking claim to its name and symbol. Under Paragraph 15, the EC is the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger. 66. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection), Act, 1972, what does it imply? (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction. (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.


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Answer (a) Explanation WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972 To protect the threatened species, India has created the Wildlife protection Act, 1972. This includes lists of plants and animals categorized according to the threat to their survival. In 1972, the Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) was enacted for the purpose of protection of wild animals, birds and plants. It was made to prevent hunting and also to control trade in wild life products. Wildlife laws divide species into schedules ranked from I to V. Section 9 of WPA prohibits hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedule 1, 2, 3 and 4. However the Chief Wild Life Warden may permit hunting of wild animals in certain cases. Schedule I members are the best protected, in theory, with severe punishments meted out to those who hunt them. SCHDULE 1 AND PART II OF SCHEDULE 2 Animals listed in schedule 1 and part II of schedule 2 have absolute protection-offences under these are presecribed the highest penalities. Reference NEO IAS material on Fauna/ Species – Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 -Schedule List of animals in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 67. In India, Judicial Review implies (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. (b) the power of the judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the legislatures. (c) the power of the judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President. (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases. Answer (a) Explanation Judicial Review is the power of the Courts to determine the constitutionality of Legislative act and executions orders. To the extent of such violation, in so far as the Fundamental Rights are concerned, Judicial Review has been provided in the Constitution under Article 13 and in Article 32 and Article 226 in the form of jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court. While judicial review over administrative action has evolved on the lines of common law doctrines such as ‘proportionality’, ‘legitimate expectation’, ‘reasonableness’ and principles of natural justice, the Supreme Court of India and the various High Courts were given the power to rule on the constitutionality of legislative as well as administrative actions to protect and enforce the fundamental rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution. Hence the scope of judicial review before Indian courts has evolved in three dimensions – 1. to ensure fairness in administrative action. 2. to protect the constitutionally guaranteed fundamental rights of citizens and 3. to rule on questions of legislative competence between the centre and the states. 68. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy 2. Quit India Movement launched 3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3 (c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2 Answer (c) Explanation The Second Round Conference opened in September 1931. Gandhi represented Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women. Madan Mohan Malaviya, Ghanshyam Das Birla, Muhammad Iqbal, Sir Mirza Ismail Diwan of Mysore, S K Dutta and NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Sir Syed Ali Imam were other people that attended the conference. The Quit India Movement, or August revolution (August Kranti), was launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee or more simply by Gandhiji (Mahatma Gandhi) on 8 August 1942, during World War II, demanding an end to British Rule of India. On February 18, 1946, a section of non-commissioned officers and sailors known as Ratings, serving in the Royal Indian Navy, mutinied against the British Officers. The mutiny started as a strike by the ratings to protest against the hardships regarding pay, food and racial discrimination. NEO IAS PRELIMS MODEL TEST-6 Arrange the following events during British rule in India in correct sequence beginning from the earliest: 1. Vaikom Satyagraha 2. Communal Award 3. Annexation of Jhansi 4. Conquest of Sindh Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 4-3-1-2 (c) 4-3-2-1 (d) 3-2-1-4 69. Consider the following statements: 1. Tax revenue as percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as the percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (d) Explanation 1. Tax revenue as percent of GDP of India has not steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as the percent of GDP of India has not steadily increased in the last decade. 70. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (a) Corbett National Park (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Sariska National Park Answer (b) Explanation ASIATIC LION (Panthera leo persica) (EN) Asiatic lion is a subspecies of Panthera leo and is surviving in the Gir Forest area of Gujarat, India. Lions are the most social of the cats. The Lion has a broad habitat tolerance, absent only from tropical rainforest and the interior of the Sahara desert. There are records of Lion to elevations of more than 4,000 m in the Bale Mountains and on Kilimanjaro. In India, the habitat of the Asiatic Lion is dry deciduous forest. Domestic cattle have historically been a major part of the Asiatic Lion's diet, although the most common prey is the Chital Deer. The translocation of Asiatic lions from Gir National park to Kuno Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh is an issue recently. Gujarat Government refused to relocate the lions. Experts have for long been saying that Gir has become overcrowded with lions and there is need to spread them out to other locations to ensure their genetic stability and health. Reference: NEO ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE MATERIAL: FAUNA (Species) http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/gujarat-swallows-its-pride-mayagree-to-translocate-gir-lions-to-kuno-sanctuary/articleshow/52803382.cms 71. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (b) Explanation When the President’s rule is imposed under Article 356, the relationship between the Centre and State alone undergoes change. The Council of Ministers of State is necessarily dismissed and President assume to himself all the executive functions and powers of the Governor. The State Legislative Assembly is suspended or dismissed; therefore the State Legislature is dysfunctional. The Legislative power of the State Legislature is exercised by the Parliament or by the President as the case may be. There is no effect on the financial relations and the fundamental rights. 72. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer (c) Explanation Articles 23- 24 of Indian Constitution deal with right against exploitation. Article 23 provides that traffic in human beings, begar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of the prohibition shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. The prohibition applies not only to State but also to private persons, bodies and organisations. Article 24 provides that employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory or mine or other hazardous occupation is forbidden. 73. Which of the following is geographically closet to Great Nicobar? (a) Sumatra (b) Borneo (c) Java (d) Sri Lanka Answer (a) Explanation Distance between Great Nicobar and Sumatra – 1192 km Distance between Great Nicobar and Borneo – 2398 km Distance between Great Nicobar and Java – 2484 km Distance between Great Nicobar and Sri Lanka – 1437 km 74. Out of the following statement, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all. (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day. (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of Government to the people. (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Answer (c) Explanation Parliamentary democracy envisages a cabinet form of government with a President as a titular head (and a governor in the states) with responsibility of ministers to the Parliament. 75. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (a) There is an independent judiciary in India. (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States. (c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units Answer (d) Explanation The Union of India cannot be said to be the result of any compact or agreement between autonomous States. 76. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya Kingdom? (a) Kakinada (b) Motupalli (c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) (d) Nelluru Answer (b) Explanation Motupalli Motupalli was a famous sea port during Kakatiya Period. Marcopolo, a Portuguese navigator, visited this place and wrote about the prosperity and power of Andhra Desa during the reign of Kakatiya kings in his travalogue. Motipalli inscription, issued by King Ganapati, in the mid thirteenth century, specifies the rates accessed on a variety of items including scents such as sandal and civet, camphor, rose water, ivory, pearls, coral, a range of metals (copper, zinc, and lead), silk, pepper, and areca-nuts. This list gives us a good idea of the types of luxury goods that were being exported and imported through Motupalli port to other Indian regions along the coast, as well as to foreign territories. 77. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (a) Explanation The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was launched in 2007 by the European Commission to strengthen dialogue and cooperation on climate change between the European Union (EU) and developing countries most vulnerable to climate change, in particular Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS), which are hardest hit by the adverse effects of climate change. The GCCA acts as a platform for dialogue and exchange of experience between the EU and developing countries on climate policy and on practical approaches to integrate climate change into development policies and budgets. The initiative was launched in 2007 and is coordinated by the European Commission (EC). NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Reference https://ec.europa.eu/clima/sites/clima/files/docs/gcca_brochure_en.pdf http://www.gcca.eu/ 78. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism. 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation Sautrantika The Sautrantika were an early Buddhist school generally believed to be descended from the Sthavira nikaya by way of their immediate parent school, the Sarvastivadins. Their name means literally "those who rely upon the sutras", and indicated their rejection of the Abhidharma texts of other early Buddhist schools. The Saṃmitiya were one of the eighteen or twenty early Buddhist schools in India, and were an offshoot of the Vatsiputriya sect. Like its predecessor, it claims the person as a carrier of skandhas endures, and as such was a representative (perhaps the most prominent one) of the Pudgalavada schools. Sarvastivada, (Sanskrit: “Doctrine That All Is Real”) also called Vaibhashika, a school of early Buddhism. A fundamental concept in Buddhist metaphysics is the assumption of the existence of dharmas, cosmic factors and events that combine momentarily under the influence of a person’s past deeds to form a person’s life flux, which he considers his personality and career. Differences arose among the various early Buddhist schools concerning the ontological reality of these dharmas. While, like all Buddhists, the Sarvastivadins consider everything empirical to be impermanent, they maintain that the dharma factors are eternally existing realities. The dharmas are thought to function momentarily, producing the empirical phenomena of the world, which is illusory, but to exist outside the empirical world. In contrast, the Sautrantikas (those for whom the sutras, or the scriptures, are authoritative) maintained that the dharma factors are not eternal but momentary, and the only actually existing dharmas are the ones presently functioning. 79. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries? 1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Answer (c) Explanation Jordan and Iraq does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea. 80. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following Statements is/are correct? 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 2. It has a corpus of ` 4,00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


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Answer (d) Explanation National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a major initiative by the Government of India to give fillip to Infrastructure sector and spur economic growth. Its creation was announced in the Union Budget 2015-16. The objective of NIIF would be to maximize economic impact mainly through infrastructure development in commercially viable projects, both greenfield and brownfield, including stalled projects. It could also consider other nationally important projects, for example, in manufacturing, if commercially viable. The proposed corpus of NIIF is ₹40,000 Crores (around USD 6 Billion). The initial authorized corpus of NIIF would be ₹20,000 crore, which may be raised from time to time, as decided by Ministry of Finance. Government can provide upto ₹20000 crore per annum into these funds. Government's contribution/share in the corpus will be 49% in each entity set up as an alternate Investment Fund (AIF) and will neither be increased beyond, nor allowed to fall below, 49%. The whole of 49% would be contributed by Government directly. Rest is open for contribution from others. Governing Council of NIIF is an advisory body - chaired by the Finance Minister. It shall comprise of government representatives, eminent economists, professionals from the Infrastructure Sector and representatives from the non-government contributors. Government is in the process of setting up the two sub funds under the NIIF- one in clean energy fund and other in focus on highways projects. 81. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank. (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital. (c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment. (d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world. Answer (b) Explanation The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership among governments, multilateral development banks, private sector investors, and financiers. It is designed to provide a new way to collaborate on preparing, structuring, and implementing complex projects that no single institution could handle on its own. The comprehensive project support provided by the GIF draws on the combined expertise of its technical and advisory partners. This group, which includes commercial banks and institutional investors, ensures that well-structured and bankable infrastructure projects are brought to market in a way that sustainably meet the needs of governments and service users. Funding partners provide financial contributions to the GIF. The GIF partnership is overseen by a Governing Council that supervises strategic programming and funds management as well as the development of operational policies and procedures. It also holds the GIF’s management accountable for delivering on objectives and principles. The Governing Council comprises representatives of funding and technical partners and representatives of emerging markets and developing economies, and is co-chaired by the World Bank Group and a Funding Partner. 82. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by (a) anyone residing in India (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested. (c) any citizen of India, whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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(d) any citizen of India. Answer (c) Explanation One of the basic qualifications for candidature at an election to Parliament or the Legislature of a State is that the person concerned should be an elector. Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act., 1950 lays down that for every assembly constituency, there shall be an electoral roll which shall be prepared in accordance with the provisions of that Act under the superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission. In all States and Union Territories, the electoral roll for a Parliamentary constituency shall consist of the electoral rolls for all the Assembly constituencies comprised within that Parliamentary constituency. For contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5 (c) of R. P. Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies. 83. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer (b) Explanation In India, the Himalayas are spread over more than 5 states. Western Ghats are spread over 6 states, including Gujarat. Pulicat Lake is spreads over Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. 84. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions Answer (c) Explanation The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic matter present in a certain volume of a sample of water is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of the amount of organic material in the water, in terms of how much oxygen will be required to break it down biologically. Clean water would have BOD value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17 ppm or more. The large population of bacteria decomposes organic matter present in water. They consume oxygen dissolved in water. The amount of oxygen that water can hold in the solution is limited. In cold water, dissolved oxygen (DO) can reach a concentration up to 10 ppm (parts per million), whereas oxygen in air is about 200,000 ppm. That is why even a moderate amount of organic matter when decomposes in water can deplete the water of its dissolved oxygen. The concentration of dissolved oxygen in water is very important for aquatic life. If the concentration of dissolved oxygen of water is below 6 ppm, the growth of fish gets inhibited. Reference NCERT Text Book - Class 12 - Environmental Chemistry 85. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?


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1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only Answer (b) Explanation UN-Habitat is the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future. It was mandated by the UN General Assembly in 1978 to address the issues of urban growth. Its mission is to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements development and the achievement of adequate shelter for all. UN-Habitat cooperates with committed partners, relevant stakeholders, and urban actors, including at all levels of government as well as the private sector. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. 86. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation The National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) is a competency-based framework that organizes all qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude. These levels, graded from one to ten, are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess regardless of whether they are obtained through formal, non-formal or informal learning. NSQF in India was notified on 27th December 2013. All other frameworks, including the NVEQF (National Vocational Educational Qualification Framework) released by the Ministry of HRD, stand superceded by the NSQF. Under NSQF, the learner can acquire the certification for competency needed at any level through formal, non-formal or informal learning. Specific outcomes expected from implementation of NSQF are: i.Mobility between vocational and general education by alignment of degrees with NSQF ii.Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL), allowing transition from non-formal to organised job market iii.Standardised, consistent, nationally acceptable outcomes of training across the country through a national quality assurance framework iv.Global mobility of skilled workforce from India, through international equivalence of NSQF v.Mapping of progression pathways within sectors and cross-sectorally vi.Approval of NOS/QPs as national standards for skill training NSQF is not only through formal learning. The learner can acquire the certification for competency needed at any level through formal, non-formal or informal learning. So the 1st statement is wrong. 2nd statement is true. One of the specific outcomes expected from implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. So the answer is option (b).


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87. In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to (a) Division of the central legislature into two houses. (b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments. (c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi. (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories. Answer (d) Explanation 1919 Act It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts-transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative Council. The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative Council. This dual scheme of governance was known as `dyarchy'-a term derived from the Greek word di-arche which means double rule. However, this experiment was largely unsuccessful. NEO IAS PRELIMS MODEL TEST -6 With reference to the Government of India Act 1919, consider the following statements: 1. Introduced bicameral Legislature at center. 2. Introduced provincial diarchy. 3. Abolished separate electorate system. 4. Central subjects divided into reserved and transferred. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only 88. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’: 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training Government of India. 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation National Career Service is a Mission Mode project under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It was launched on 20th July 2015, by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It aims at using every possible aspect of technology in bridging the gap between the job-seekers and the employers. National Employment Service comprising a network of 978 Employment Exchanges will be transformed into National Career Service (NCS) by leveraging information technology to improve the delivery of services. The previous system required job seekers to physically visit the Employment Exchanges for registration, verify their records and wait for opportunities to come. Similarly, the employers had to visit Employment Exchanges for posting job vacancies and obtaining a list of eligible candidates with little flexibility. Thus both job seekers and employers were unsatisfied. Beneficiaries of NCS • Unemployed candidates seeking jobs • Students seeking career counselling • Candidates seeking vocational / occupational guidance • Illiterate, under-privileged sections of society, blue-collar workers seeking placements and guidance • Person with different abilities (PWDs), ex-servicemen, veterans / senior citizens, etc. • Employers seeking suitable candidates NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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With the National Career Service portal (www.ncs.gov.in) has been developed with a tagline of “Right Opportunities, Right Time”, is primarily to connect the opportunities with the aspirations of youth. This portal facilitates registration of job seekers, job providers, skill providers, career counselors, local service providers, govt. departments etc. 89. Which of the following statements best describes the tern ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news? (a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government. (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties. (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public-Sector Undertakings. (d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government. Answer (b) Explanation The S4A is RBI’s latest attempt to try and chip away at the mountain of stressed loans smothering Indian banks. The scheme tries to strike a compromise between banks with problem accounts and corporate defaulters of the non-wilful variety, by converting a portion of large loan accounts into equity shares. For a distressed company to be eligible for S4A, the RBI has laid down three conditions. 1. The project must be operating and already generating cash. 2. The total loans to the entity should be ₹500 crore or more. 3. The lending banks are required to hire an independent agency to evaluate how much of the debt is ‘sustainable’. For the loan to be eligible for S4A, at least 50 percent of it should be ‘sustainable’. While RBI’s earlier ideas to resolve bad loans such as Strategic Debt Restructuring (SDR) required banks to oust existing promoters, S4A allows the incumbent management to continue, as long the default isn’t wilful. By straightaway allowing as much as half of the loan to be written off through conversion into equity, S4A gives corporate borrowers the opportunity to trim their debt pile and start afresh. 90. Consider the following statements: 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on Methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is the global effort that unites governments, civil society and private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few decades by reducing short-lived climate pollutants (SLCP) across sectors. Recognising that mitigating the impacts of short-lived climate pollutants is critical for addressing near-term climate change, the governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), came together to initiate the first effort to treat these pollutants as a collective challenge. Thus, statement – 1 is wrong. The Coalition's objective is to address short-lived climate pollutants. Its initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs. Reference http://www.ccacoalition.org/en NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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91. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an EI Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in the sea surface temperature between the two equatorial areas of the Indian Ocean – a western pole near the Arabian Sea (in western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole closer to the Bay of Bengal (in eastern Indian Ocean). The IOD affects the climate of Southeast Asia, Australia and other countries that surround the Indian Ocean Basin. The Indian Monsoon is invariably influenced by the IOD. A positive IOD occurs when the sea surface temperatures are greater than normal in the Arabian Sea and less than normal in the tropical eastern Indian Ocean. When the reverse is the case, a negative IOD is said to have developed. A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and more active (above normal rainfall) monsoon days while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more monsoon break days (no rainfall). El-nino conditions normally result in dimished monsoonal rainfall. However, if there is a positive IOD, it can bring good rains to India despite of an El Nino year. 92. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) Chambal River (c) Pulicat Lake (d) Deepor Beel Answer (b) Explanation Gharial also called as Fish-eating Crocodile, Indian Gavial, Gavial, Long-nosed Crocodile. It is a crocodilian of the family Gavialidae that is native to the Indian subcontinent. Gharials now remain in only a small fraction of their historical range, in a few areas of India and Nepal. In the past they were found in the river systems of Pakistan, northern India, Bangladesh, Myanmar and in the lowlands of Bhutan and Nepal. Today three widely separated breeding subpopulations are left in the four tributaries of Ganges River in India (Chambal River, Girwa River and Son River) and one in Nepal (Rapti/Narayani River). 93. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium(IONS): 1. Inaugural IONS was hold in India in 2015 under the championship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Explanation The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. In the process, it endeavours to generate a flow of information between naval professionals that would lead to common understanding and possibly cooperative solutions on the way ahead. The inaugural IONS Seminar was held by the Indian Navy in 2008. Subsequent seminars have been held by the United Arab Emirates Navy in 2010, the South African Navy in 2012, Royal Australian Navy in 2014 and the Bangladesh Navy in 2016. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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94. The painting of Bodhisattva Padampani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at (a) Ajanta (b) Badami (c) Bagh (d) Ellora Answer (a) Explanation

The most famous cave site is Ajanta. It is located in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra State. Ajanta has twenty-nine caves. The common themes of these paintings range from Jataka stories to life of Buddha to elaborate decorative patterns of flora and fauna. Graceful poses of humans and animals adorn the walls of the caves. The medium of painting was vegetable and mineral dyes. The outline of the figures is red ochre, with contours of brown, black or deep red. The greatness of these paintings lies in their success in bringing out the philosophy of Budhism in paintings ex: Padmapani painting showing bitterness of renunciation of life and hope for future happiness. They were the inspiration for paintings in southern region. They also attained the status of World heritage site status and continue to inspire present generations. 95. Consider the following pairs: Traditions Communities 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra Gonds 3.Wari-Warkari Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Answer (a) Explanation Chaliha sahib festival The Chaliha is an important festival celebrated by the Sindhis wherein they pray to their God, Jhulelal. A special ‘jyot’ that is believed to have protected the Sindhi people and their culture during the ancient times, from around 1897 AD, was brought from the Puj Chalihasahib Mandir Peergoath in Sindh by the Sindhis to India during partition in 1947. This Akhand jyot was then placed in the Chaliha Sahib Puj Jhulelal Mandir in Ulhasnagar. To this date, the jyot is kept lit in a structure similar to the one in Sindh. It is here that Sindhis from all over the country come to worship Jhulelal and offer their prayers during the festival. It is customary to also go on a 40 day fast during the festival. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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The three-week-long Nanda Devi Raj Jat is a pilgrimage and festival of Uttarakhand in India. People from the entire Garhwal division-Kumaon division as well as other parts of India and the world participate in Nanda Devi Raj Jat Yatra. In Chamoli, Nanda Devi Raj Jaat is organized once in 12 years. The Jaat (meaning Yatra or pilgrimage) starts from Nauti village near Karnprayag and goes up to the heights of Roopkund and Homekund with a four-horned sheep. After the havan - yagna is over, the sheep is freed with decorated ornaments, food and clothing, and the other offerings are discarded. Pandharpur Wari or Wari (Vari) is an annual pilgrimage (yatra) to Pandharpur - the seat of the Hindu god Vithoba in the Indian state of Maharashtra, in honour of the deity. palakhis (palanquin processions) carrying the paduka (foot prints) of various saints - most notably Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram - from the Varkari (Warkari, "one who performs the Wari") sect (which venerates Vithoba), are taken from their respective shrines to Pandharpur. The tradition is more than 700 to 800 years old. 96. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? 1. Reduced or Zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (d) Explanation Applying gypsum improves the ability of soil to drain and not become waterlogged due to a combination of high sodium, swelling clay and excess water. Thus, it improves water infiltration and replenishes groundwater. No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct drilling) is a way of growing crops or pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. No-till is an agricultural technique which increases the amount of water that infiltrates into the soil and increases organic matter retention and cycling of nutrients in the soil. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field will reduce soil erosion, and increase water infiltration. 97. Consider the following statements: The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at 1. Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation 2. Enabling the bank to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality 3. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (b) Explanation Soil Health Card Scheme is a very beneficial scheme for farmers. There are so many illiterate farmers in India. And they do not know which types of crops they should grow to get maximum yield. Basically, they do not know the quality and the type of their soil. They might know by experience what crops grow and what crops fail. But they don’t know what they can do to improve the condition of the soil. So, the Soil Health Card Scheme is an initiative by Prime Minister for the welfare of farmers. Under the scheme, the farmers will get a soil health card. This card will contain details about what kind of soil is there in the farmers’ land. Also, it will list what crops they can grow in their land to get maximum profits. And what corrective measures the farmers can take to improve the yield. NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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Key Features of the Soil Health Card Scheme 1. The government is planning to cover as many as 14 crore farmers under the scheme. 2. The scheme will cover all the parts of the country. 3. In the form of soil card, the farmers will get a report. And this report will contain all the details about the soil of their particular farm. 4. A farm will get the soil card once in every 3 years. 98. Consider the following pairs: Commonly used / Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be Consumed materials found in them 1. Lipstick Lead 2. Soft drinks Brominated vegetable oils 3. Chinese fast food Monosodium glutamate Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (d) Explanation As a part of FDA’s overall mission to protect public health, the agency undertook a project to determine levels of lead in lipstick and in a variety of other cosmetics. In December 2016, FDA issued draft guidance to industry on lead as an impurity in cosmetic lip products, such as lipsticks, and other cosmetics, such as eye shadows, blushes, compact powders, shampoos, and body lotions. Our guidance recommends a maximum level of lead in cosmetic products. Some drinks companies use brominated vegetable oil (BVO) to stop ingredients in fruit-flavoured soft drinks from separating out. The additive is banned in Europe and Japan, but in north America drinks can contain BVO at up to 15 parts per million (ppm). Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer commonly added to Chinese food, canned vegetables, soups and processed meats. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has classified MSG as a food ingredient that's "generally recognized as safe," but its use remains controversial. For this reason, when MSG is added to food, the FDA requires that it be listed on the label. Reference https://www.fda.gov/cosmetics/productsingredients/products/ucm137224.htm https://www.theguardian.com/business/2014/may/06/brominated-vegetable-oil-bvo-additivenegative-health-coca-cola http://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/bjp-legislator-wants-momos-banned-says-theycause-life-threatening-diseases/story-RaiSxYPhiZytNzWK3FYjgJ.html 99. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays? 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. 3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above statements is correct Answer (c) Explanation OLED is an emerging display technology that enables efficient displays and lighting panels. OLEDs are already being used in many mobile devices and TVs, and the next generation of these panels will be flexible and bendable. A flexible OLED is based on a flexible substrate which can be either plastic, metal or flexible glass. Recently, researchers in South Korea have created an OLED display that can be worn like clothing. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446334122, 9446331522 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias

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made using OLEDs. Transparent OLED displays are self-emitting and utilize cutting-edge Organic Light Emitting Diode (OLED) technology to eliminate the need for a backlight or enclosure, making it possible to create truly see-through installations in a virtually frameless glass design. 100. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples? 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (a) Explanation Arasavalli The famous Sun God Temple situated in Arasavalli Village which is at a distance of about 1 K.M. east of Srikakulam Town District head quarters of the North Coastal Andhra Pradesh. It is one of the ancient and all among two sun God temples in our Country. According to Padmapuranam, Sage Kasyapa installed the Idol of Surya at Arasavalli for the Welfare of mankind.


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